to it
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
in
"Tôt" : Early
tot
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
'sins' isn't a Dutch word. Probably 'ziens' is meant here. 'Tot ziens' means 'Goodbye'.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
If you are talking about the French phrase "a bientot", it means goodbye.
It's something like 'I'll see you tomorrow'
Tôt means 'soon in French.
it means he is calling u cute! :>
"très tôt" means "very early" in French.
tot