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King James I became the patron of the Lord Chamberlain's men when he bacame king, and the company was renamed the King's Men. That made all of the actors the king's servants, including Shakespeare. Some people think Shakespeare wrote Macbeth in order to win the king's approval, although the story was written that way in his sources anyway. There is no record that Macbeth was played at court, and it is unlikely that Macbeth was the King's favourite play, as he appears to have preferred comedies. (He expressly asked for The Merchant of Venice for Shrove Tuesday in 1606--this really was one of his favourite plays) In any event, Shakespeare would not have had any personal relationship with the king, as kings and players did not mix socially.

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Do you know if King James I and Shakespeare were lovers?

There is no concrete evidence to suggest that King James I and William Shakespeare were lovers. While there were rumors and speculation about their relationship, it remains a topic of historical debate and interpretation.


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What did King James 1 change the name of the acting troupe to?

When King James I started paying Shakespeare's bills Shakespeare's Acting troupe changed its name to The King's Men.


How did King James I take to Shakespeare?

King James and everyone in his family were active patrons of the theatre. The King himself sponsored Shakespeare's company, and on at least a couple of occasions, had them play a large number of Shakespeare's plays at court.


Who commissioned the majority of Shakespeare's plays?

King James I


Which king was on the throne during Shakespeare's time?

James the first (James l)


Which king gave William Shakespeare a royal patent?

James I.


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What nobleman supported Shakespeare's plays?

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