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Shakespeare used the word "pumpion" in his play "Henry IV, Part 2." Specifically, it appears in Act 5, Scene 1, where the character Pistol refers to it in a comedic context. The term is an old word for pumpkin, reflecting the playful and colloquial language present in Shakespeare's works.
What else can I help you with?
What does Shakespeare's word mad-bread mean?
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word townsfolk?
Shakespeare does not use the word townsfolk.
How did shakespeare use his words in his play?
He has the characters in the play say them. That is how you use words in a play.
What is Shakespeare's word for indecent?
Shakespeare did not use the word "indecent" although he did use "decent". The word "lewd" might be the word he would choose to express this idea.
Is it true the original assassins came from japan in shakespeare?
What an odd question. Japan is not mentioned anywhere in Shakespeare. The word assassin is of Arabic provenance (it derives from hashish) although Shakespeare was the first to use the word "assassination" in English. There are assassins in Shakespeare's plays, and they might be staged in such a way as to be Japanese (as Ken Branagh did in his film As You Like It), but there is no reason for them to be Japanese, unless that is where you are putting on the play
What does Shakespeare's word mad-bread mean?
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word townsfolk?
Shakespeare does not use the word townsfolk.
How did shakespeare use his words in his play?
He has the characters in the play say them. That is how you use words in a play.
What is Shakespeare's word for indecent?
Shakespeare did not use the word "indecent" although he did use "decent". The word "lewd" might be the word he would choose to express this idea.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word the?
Shakespeare wrote in English. "The" means exactly the same when he used it as it does when you use it.
Which Greco-Roman myth did Shakespeare use for play?
Shakespeare used more than one myth for more than one play.
Is it true the original assassins came from japan in shakespeare?
What an odd question. Japan is not mentioned anywhere in Shakespeare. The word assassin is of Arabic provenance (it derives from hashish) although Shakespeare was the first to use the word "assassination" in English. There are assassins in Shakespeare's plays, and they might be staged in such a way as to be Japanese (as Ken Branagh did in his film As You Like It), but there is no reason for them to be Japanese, unless that is where you are putting on the play
Which language did shakespeare use in Macbeth play?
The play Macbeth is written entirely in English.
Arch-villain and cheap are both coined by Shakespeare?
Shakespeare is credited with the first use of the word "Arch-villain" in his play Measure For Measure, but he did not invent "cheap". The noun sense of "cheap" (a cheap was a market or a bargain) goes back to Old English. The adjective form was just coming into use in the Elizabethan era: Shakespeare is credited with the first use of the word in some senses, but other similar uses were first recorded by other people including the playwright Thomas Dekker, some of them when Shakespeare was a schoolboy in Stratford. Shakespeare can hardly be credited with coining the word "cheap"
Does Shakespeare use the word collapse in Romeo and juliet?
No, he doesn't.
Did shakespeare use the word banana?
No he didn't. They didn't have bananas then.
Did rush use Shakespeare lyrics?
Yes they did a play on word's in the song Limelight <Moving Pictures 1981>. In Shakespeare's play As you like It he said "All the world's a stage and all the men and women merely players" In Limelight "All the worlds indeed a stage, and we are merely players.".
