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In Act 1 Scene 3 Line 38, Macbeth said, 'So foul and fair a day I have not seen'. He referred to the battles in which he and his best friend and fellow Captain Banquo had fought. The foulness referred to the bloody ugliness of the fighting. The fairness referred to the victory of the forces of their sovereign, King Duncan I [d. August 14, 1040], over invading Norwegians and treacherous Scotsmen.

It's basically a paradox, a paradox is a contradiction in terms. Fair and foul a day is saying that its a good day, but a bad day. So like, its wet and windy, but also warm a sunny. And saying he has not seen it is saying that he hasn't seen anything like this.

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In Act 1 Scene 3 Line 38, Macbeth said, 'So foul and fair a day I have not seen'. He referred to the battles in which he and his best friend and fellow Captain Banquo had fought. The foulness referred to the bloody ugliness of the fighting. The fairness referred to the victory of the forces of their sovereign, King Duncan I [d. August 14, 1040], over invading Norwegians and treacherous Scotsmen.

It's basically a paradox, a paradox is a contradiction in terms. Fair and foul a day is saying that its a good day, but a bad day. So like, its wet and windy, but also warm a sunny. And saying he has not seen it is saying that he hasn't seen anything like this.

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Q: What was the meaning of 'So foul and fair a day I have not seen'?
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What statements do witches and Macbeth make about foul and fair?

The expression suggests the themes of paradox, and of things not being what they appear to be.


What line echos 'So foul and fair a day I have not seen' from scene 1 act 1?

"Fair is foul and foul is fair. Hover through the fog and filthy air"


How does the very first line Macbeth speaks echo one of the paradoxical lines spoken by the witches in the very first scene of the play?

In Macbeth's first line, he echoes the witches' paradoxical line "Fair is foul, and foul is fair" by stating "So foul and fair a day I have not seen." This creates a parallel between Macbeth's fate and the supernatural forces at play, suggesting that what seems fair or good may actually be foul or evil, and vice versa. The use of paradox in both instances foreshadows the themes of deception and moral ambiguity throughout the play.


What does so foul and fair a day i have not seen mean in Macbeth?

What is significant is that it echoes the witches' line "Fair is foul and foul is fair; hover through the fog and filthy air", thus connecting Macbeth with the witches and showing how they anticipate what will happen to him. And of course both quotations talk about the moral ambiguity of what is and what seems to be in the play.


What does it foreshadow when the Witches say fair is foul and foul is fair hover through fog and filthy air?

The words "fair is foul" foreshadow Macbeth's opening line "So foul and fair a day I have not seen" Also in a deeper sense we are given a clue that in this play nothing will be what it seems to be. People will look like the innocent flower but be the serpent under it. The apparent murderers (the grooms) will actually be victims. Woods will move, and men not born of women will appear, which seems impossible.


What is the meaning for the phrase a fair day?

a beautiful day a day at a fair


What does Macbeth mean when he says so fou and fair a day i have not seen?

Macbeth means that the weather is both strange and beautiful, with a combination of good and bad omens. It is like a mix of foul (bad) and fair (good) elements, suggesting a sense of ominousness and unpredictability in the air.


What does it mean A foul morn may turn to a fair day?

Marry in lent, you will learn to repent.


What is the meaning of 'fair is faul'?

The phrase "fair is foul" comes from Shakespeare's play Macbeth and suggests that things that appear good on the surface may actually be deceitful or corrupt. It hints at the theme of appearance versus reality and warns against trusting superficial appearances.


Who or what is it about when the witches say fair is foul and foul is fair in the book of Macbeth?

That's a line from Macbeth. Yes, the witches in Macbeth say the line "Fair is foul and foul is fair" in Act 1 Scene 1. The whole line is "Fair is foul, and foul is fair. Hover through the fog and filthy air". Why do they say it? Who knows, it's a witchy thing. But it does help set up a theme of moral ambiguity, of appearance not matching reality, which is a theme throughout the play. Some have argued that it is essentially what the play is all about.


What is the first line in Macbeth?

The most famous line in Macbeth is when Lady Macbeth says, "Out out damned spot." She says this line after she persuades Macbeth to kill the king. She feels guilty and imagines that she can't get the blood off of her hands.


When nature reflects the state of affairs in a play what is the term called?

It is most often used to foreshadow coming events. An excellent example of nature reflecting both natural and supernatural events that foreshadow what is to come are found in William Shakespeare's Macbeth. The play opens with three witches who are together during a dark and tempestuous storm with thunder and lightning. The are discussing the events to come and speak of Macbeth. When one of the weird sisters asks the others when they will meet again the response is when "fair is foul." That fair is foul turns out to be after Macbeth is victorious over the rebel the Thane of Cowdor. Macbeth and Banquo are riding home and it is raining, yet the sun is shining and Macbeth comments on this with the line "Such fair and foul a day I have not seen." The imagery of this line works in many ways. It is rare that the sun shines when it rains but also he has just defeated the Thane of Cowdor which took a heavy toll on his own men, thus fair and foul could be in reference to that, the weather only accentuating the day. It is, most importantly a foreshadowing of what is to come when the fair Macbeth turns foul and murders the King Duncan. thank you but i mean what's the term called, not what its for (i think its human falliacy or something?)