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Shakespeare's sonnets are filled with flatters, praises and rhetorical languages that are significant in courtly love. The fact that the addressee of Shakespeare's Sonnets is the "fair lord" a member of the same gender that Shakespeare belongs to, is where the confusion stems from regarding his sexuality. The content and the language he uses are for courtly love, yet the person whom he addresses is the "fair lord".

The rhetoric question that Shakespeare brings forth in Sonnet 18 and gives the answer himself, "Shall I compare thee to the summer's day?/ Thou art more lovely and temperate" is and expression of his love towards the addressee. He goes on comparing the "fair lord's" beauty with the days of summer and states that the latter is temporary while "Thy summer shall not fade".

In sonnet 74 too, he states the futility of his physical body and that the earth would take his body which is but earth itself but says, "My spirit is thine, the better part of me".

In Sonnet 116, he talks about the eternity of love which remains unshaken in tempests and the love that moves to the last days of the Earth, reiterating explicitly what true love really means. He goes to the extent of being expression that if he was wrong, he never wrote and no man ever loved.

All these features are the characteristics of courtly love that he expresses to the addressee, the "fair lord".

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Q: Who did shakespeare write the sonnets for?
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