Why did shakespeare occasionally use confusing word order?

Answer 1

Why did Shakespeare unusual syntax use? Why at the end of his sentences did he sometimes the verb place?

The answer is: poetry.

Shakespeare had his characters speak in the poetic rhythm called iambic pentameter, which goes ti-DUM ti-DUM ti-DUM ti-DUM ti-DUM

Consider:

"Plots have I laid, inductions dangerous,

By drunken prophecies, libels, and dreams

To set my brother Clarence and the king

In deadly hate the one against the other."

"Plots have I laid"? Why not say "I have laid plots"? Because "Plots HAVE I LAID" is iambic ti-DUM ti-DUM, but "I have laid PLOTS" is not only the uniambic DUM-ti ti-DUM but also emphasizes different words.

Remember that these words are intended to be said out loud. They are organized so they are easy to say (and remember) while emphasizing the more important words. Shakespeare considered that it was worth while to fiddle with word order in order to get the effect he wanted.

Often Shakespeare wrote lines for his characters which are not in poetry. E.g.

"Young gentleman, your spirits are too bold for your years. You have seen cruel proof of this man's strength; if you saw yourself with your eyes or knew yourself with your judgement, the fear of your adventure would counsel you to a more equal enterprise. We pray you, for your own sake, to embrace your own safety and give over this attempt."

The word order is completely standard here.