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Because it made it more interesting. Or because that was where the story was set in his source. If he wanted to write a play around the story of Hamlet Prince of Denmark, he could hardly set it in England.

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12y ago
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11y ago

Shakespeare got most of his plots from earlier plays, stories and poems, and he quite often kept the setting of those stories. Hamlet, for example, is a story which had always been set in Denmark. His source for Romeo and Juliet, Brooke's poem Romeus and Juliet, was also set in Italy.

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12y ago

Thirteen of Shakespeare's plays were set or partly set in England, which was not a foreign country to Shakespeare . That is more than a quarter of them. The fact is that Shakespeare tended to set his plays where they were set in the sources he got them from. And Shakespeare used a lot of sources which were derived from Italian stories or classical stories which were set in Italy or ancient Rome or Ancient Greece. The only plays which are not at least partly set in Italy, Greece or England are As You Like It (France), Hamlet (Denmark), and Measure for Measure (Austria).

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11y ago

He would not have been able to make a living as an actor and playwright in Stratford. He had to go to London where the professional theaters were, just as a young person today has to go to New York or LA to make a living as an actor or playwright. He may have left Stratford touring with The Queens Men, joining them when they were on tour in Stratford.

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11y ago

In my opinion it has to do with two factors:

  • Suspension of disbelief. Some of Shakespeare's plays are silly and in that time people would be much more willing to believe that foreigners could be that stupid and silly rather than their neighbors.
  • Some were about shocking murders and misbehaving royalty. If he set his plays as being English royalty he would likely be beheaded.

However, he did set ten history plays full of shocking murders and misbehaving royalty in England, so that was ok, just so long as the misbehaving royalty in question was not the current monarch or his or her near relatives.

He also did set one play, The Merry Wives of Windsor, which is full of stupid and silly people, in contemporary England, and it was reasonably popular (especially because of the presence of Falstaff in it). But that was the only time he set a play contemporaneously.

Another factor worth considering is:

  • Shakespeare took a lot of his plots from sources that had already set the plays in Italy, Denmark, France, Greece, Ancient Rome and so on. He just didn't bother to change them.
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10y ago

He didn't always. The names and places in the history plays were familiar to Englishmen. One play, The Merry Wives of Windsor, takes place in contemporary England, and the characters have such prosaic names as Mrs. Page and Mrs. Ford.

Where the plays are set elsewhere, this is often because that is where they were set in the sources Shakespeare got his story from. This is true of Hamlet and Romeo and Juliet.

Sometimes people are given names which give you a clue as to what kind of person they are. My favourite is the name Supervacuo from Thomas Middleton's play The Revenger's Tragedy. The names Subtle and Face in Ben Jonson's The Alchemist are like this. Shakespeare used this kind of name less, but there are such characters as Mouldy, and Slender, and Shallow, as well as Bottom, who gets turned into an ass.

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13y ago

Because Poms are boring, whinging bastards

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Q: Why did shakespeare use exotic names and places in his plays?
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What were the names of the plays that William Shakespeare wrote in 1801?

Shakespeare wrote his plays between 1590 and 1613.


What two names did shakespeare use the most in his plays?

Yes he did.


What were the names of characters by Shakespeare?

Shakespeare wrote a lot of plays - here are some of his more well known characters: Hamlet, Ophelia, King Lear


Are Shakespeare's plays written in verses?

Yes Shakespeare's plays were written in verses.


Who write the plays Shakespeare?

Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays. Other theories may be entertaining but have no evidence to support them.

Related questions

How many places did will shakespeare write?

Do you mean "places"? Or plays?


What were the names of the plays that William Shakespeare wrote in 1801?

Shakespeare wrote his plays between 1590 and 1613.


What two names did shakespeare use the most in his plays?

Yes he did.


What are two of the drama plays that shakespeare wrote?

All of Shakespeare's plays were dramas, so here are the names of two of them: Cymbeline and Timon of Athens.


What were the names of characters by Shakespeare?

Shakespeare wrote a lot of plays - here are some of his more well known characters: Hamlet, Ophelia, King Lear


What were the names of the six plays that William wrote?

Shakespeare wrote thirty-eight plays, not six. See the related question to see the thirty-six plays.


Which planet has Shakespearean names?

All but two of the moons of Uranus have names drawn from Shakespeare's plays. Many of them are taken from The Tempest, and most others are names of young female characters from the other plays. The two moon names not in Shakespeare are Umbriel and Belinda from Pope's The Rape of the Lock. The name Ariel is in both this and Shakespeare's Tempest. The two largest moons are named for Titania and Oberon, king and queen of the fairies in A Midsummer Night's Dream.


How many plays comprise Shakespeare's portfolio?

Shakespeare wrote 38 plays.


When was The Plays of William Shakespeare created?

The Plays of William Shakespeare was created in 1765.


Are Shakespeare's plays written in verses?

Yes Shakespeare's plays were written in verses.


Who write the plays Shakespeare?

Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays. Other theories may be entertaining but have no evidence to support them.


Who authored Shakespeare's plays?

William Shakespeare