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It is a truism about theatre that if you cannot show something, you have one character tell another about it. That is what happens whenever there is a wedding in any Shakespeare play, because it was illegal to imitate a sacrament on stage. So, for example, in The Taming of the Shrew, Petruchio's outrageous behaviour during the wedding ceremony is described not portrayed. Similarly, in Act IV Scene 1 of Macbeth, Macbeth describes his vision of an unending line of decendants of Banquo, because portraying such a thing would be difficult on the Elizabethan stage (or any stage, really).

On the other hand, the witches do not describe, for example, the apparitions, since they were intended to be displayed. There was a hole in the stage which smoke could come out of and then the apparition would suddenly appear. This was bound to bring gasps from the crowd, and there was no need for the witches to describe it. Something similar happened when the witches disappear at the end of the scene. It is possible that the head witch flew up into the ceiling (they could do that too) or other tricks were employed. This scene was intended to be a tour de force of the best that Elizabethan special effects could achieve.

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Q: Why is the witches use of imagery in Scene i of the Act IV of The Tradegy of Macbeth important given the limitations of Elizabethan theater?
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Tradegy and comedy


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Uses an extraordinary hero.


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Why does act 1 scene one open with thunder and lightning in Macbeth?

The thunder and lightning are ominous, as the play is a tradegy. Many people end up dying, and the opening scene sets a tone of danger. Using weather to create an atmosphere in a novel or play is a technique known as pathetic fallacy.


There is an an ask if Romeo and Juliet were real people I am big fan of Shakespeare from my search I found they were real people that died in 1303 from where are your sources it isn't real story?

Hi, I'm a huge fan of Shakespear and i do believe that it was based on a true story, however if anyone said it wasn't because it is impossible for a person to fall in love and die in a period of three days that is fair enough, but this was only Shakespears interpretation of the story, he had to contract the time period for the lovers and also reduce the number of days in order to avoid confusion in the audience whilst at the same time enhancing the tradegy and audience response. If he wrote about every little detail the lovers faced it would tear away from the greatness his play posses. I do believe that Romeo and Juliet existed and their story is true however Shakespear's interpretation is not accurate word for word. As a writer and an aspiring actor, Shakespear had to make changes to appeal to the more 'modern' society (back in the Elizabethan Period). Movies based on true stories do it today as well ie. Memoirs of a Geisha is based on a true story however names were changed and certain events were too in order to appeal more to todays audience. I know this doesn't anwer you question but I decided to rebutt any answers that will go against this arugument before they appear. It was also based on an Italian tale that dates back years. They have also found the remains of what they call Romeo and Juliet, two 3000 year old skeletons in eternal embrace from the Neolithic era in Mantua, south of Verona.

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