When a machine is 100% efficient, theoretical and actual MAs are the same.
Please let me know when you run across one of these.
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
the difference between the real mechanical advantage and the speed ratio is -the real mechanical advantage gets affected by friction so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the mechanical advantage you calculate. so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the speed ratio (because of the friction) and that's why the efficiency never gets 100% efficient (efficiency ; mechanical advantage/ speed ratio x 100(%))
The ideal mechanical advantage of a ramp is equal to the length of the ramp divided by the vertical height it lifts an object. This ratio gives an indication of how much easier it is to move an object up the ramp compared to lifting it vertically. A higher mechanical advantage indicates a more efficient ramp design.
A first-class lever can be efficient in transmitting force but it is not necessarily perfectly efficient due to factors like friction and mechanical losses. While it can provide a mechanical advantage by altering the direction or magnitude of a force, it still follows the law of conservation of energy.
The mechanical advantage of an axe is typically 8:1, meaning it multiplies the force applied to it by eight times when used to chop wood. This is due to the wedge shape of the blade, which concentrates force on a small area, allowing for more efficient cutting.
Perfect efficiency
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
the difference between the real mechanical advantage and the speed ratio is -the real mechanical advantage gets affected by friction so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the mechanical advantage you calculate. so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the speed ratio (because of the friction) and that's why the efficiency never gets 100% efficient (efficiency ; mechanical advantage/ speed ratio x 100(%))
The ideal mechanical advantage of a ramp is equal to the length of the ramp divided by the vertical height it lifts an object. This ratio gives an indication of how much easier it is to move an object up the ramp compared to lifting it vertically. A higher mechanical advantage indicates a more efficient ramp design.
A first-class lever can be efficient in transmitting force but it is not necessarily perfectly efficient due to factors like friction and mechanical losses. While it can provide a mechanical advantage by altering the direction or magnitude of a force, it still follows the law of conservation of energy.
Reducing friction helps to minimize energy loss, making the machine more efficient. This allows the machine to transfer more of its input force or energy into useful work, increasing its ideal mechanical advantage.
The mechanical advantage of an axe is typically 8:1, meaning it multiplies the force applied to it by eight times when used to chop wood. This is due to the wedge shape of the blade, which concentrates force on a small area, allowing for more efficient cutting.
In a first class lever, as the distance from the fulcrum to the point where the input force is applied increases, the mechanical advantage also increases. This means that the lever becomes more efficient at moving a load with less effort.
The mechanical efficiency of an inclined plane is the ratio of the output force to the input force, taking into account friction and other factors that may reduce efficiency. It is calculated as the ratio of the ideal mechanical advantage to the actual mechanical advantage. A perfectly efficient inclined plane would have a mechanical efficiency of 100%, but in reality, efficiency will be less than 100% due to energy losses.
Wear and tear of moving parts would be reduced. Less energy would be needed to run the machine, as there would be less friction to be overcome. A well lubricated machine is more efficient than a neglected machine with unoiled parts.
The mechanical advantage of something is related to the power input (fuel) and the power output (work) that the machine is given/gives out (respectively) I'm not entirely sure what means what (i.e. a mechanical advantage of over 1 or 3 or whatever = efficient, and such) Hope I helped. If you need to, I think the last place I saw a lesson on this was in a Holt physical science book, if you wanted to search for that lesson online or something.
Adding pulleys to a pulley system increases the mechanical advantage, making it easier to lift heavy objects. It also helps to distribute the weight evenly across multiple ropes or cables, reducing wear and tear on individual components. Additionally, pulleys can change the direction of the force, allowing for more flexible and efficient lifting configurations.