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No. Newton's 3 laws of motion are not equal to his law of gravitation. Newton was able to combine his laws of motion with his law of universal gravitation to explain Johannes Kepler's laws of planetary motion. (Wikipedia)

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Do Newton's Laws of Motion apply in outer space?

Yes, the laws of motion apply in outer space.


How does newtons third law apply to CO2 cars?

because newtonas lawis andobjectthat stays in motionwill like stay in motion thereforethe cars afterthey getgettherespeedwill probably keep going until the outer force( friction) acts to slow it down


What kind of newtons law of motion is illustrated if the force that accelerates a rocket into outer space is exerted on the rocket by the exhaust gases?

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Do newtons laws work for outer space?

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Does absolute motion only exist in outer space?

There is no such thing as "absolute motion" - neither in outer space, nor anywhere else. Motion must always be specified in relationship to some other object.


What is a persons weight in outer space if they weight 637 newtons?

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Is it possible to have motion in absence of force?

Not according to Newtons Law: Forces = Mass X Acceleration However, in a vacuum, after you used your force on an object and it now has motion, the object will have motion for eternity, even when there is no force. So as a matter of fact, it is possible. Just not on any planet, only in outer space.


What mechanics applies in outer space?

In outer space, objects follow Newton's laws of motion, which describe how forces affect the motion of bodies. There is no atmosphere in space, so objects do not experience air resistance. Gravity is the dominant force that governs the motions of objects in space, causing them to orbit planets or other celestial bodies.


Why would a ball would never stop moving if you give it a push (apply a force to it) in outer space?

In outer space, there is no air resistance or friction to slow down the ball's movement, so it will continue at a constant velocity indefinitely unless acted upon by an external force. This is in accordance with Newton's first law of motion, which states that an object in motion will stay in motion unless acted upon by a force.


How did Copernicus explain the retrograde motions of the planets?

All the models explain retrograde motion because it is such an obvious phenomenon. In Copernicus's model an outer planet goes into retrograde motion when the inner planet overtakes it so that it appears from the inner planet to be going backwards along the ecliptic.