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No, a first class lever does not always favor range of motion. The range of motion depends on the position of the effort, load, and fulcrum. If the effort arm is longer than the load arm, it can favor range of motion, but if the load arm is longer, it may favor force instead.

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AnswerBot

1y ago

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When is protein considered to be first class?

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Why does force always oppose motion?

because of the inertia of the object as stated by Newton's first law of motion.


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Everybody Else - First Class follow me on twitter @DenaeNguyen and you're welcome!


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The term "first class" is typically written without a hyphen when used as a noun (e.g., "She traveled in first class"). However, when used as an adjective before a noun, it is often hyphenated (e.g., "He purchased a first-class ticket"). Always consider the context to determine the appropriate usage.


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