Answer:
vectors:
downwards force vector at some angle is mg.cos(theta), where theta is the angle between the dowards vertical and the angle (downslope) the thing is travelling. Honestly though, it would depend on what info you had been given. That is a very general question.
If the question was, "given the vertical downwards velocity, how would you calculate the velocity at some angle to that line?" Then it would be easier to help.
I assume, because you give mass that you want to calculate the force, and are assuming that there is no friction present. Then there would be a constant acceleration of g.cos(theta).
You might then use the above to calculate the final velocity experienced at that angle at some point in time, and then use one of the uniform acceleration formulas:
v=u+at ; s=ut+(1/2)a.t^2 ; V^2=u^2 +2.a.s to calculate the final velocity. But the velocity would be constantly changing if there was a constant force and no friction, so time t would have to be given.
Need more information on that one.
If you know the initial height and the length of the pendulum, then you have no use for the mass or the velocity. You already have the radius of a circle, and an arc for which you know the height of both ends. You can easily calculate the arc-length from these. And by the way . . . it'll be the same regardless of the mass or the max velocity. They don't matter.
No, it is not.
You don't. Velocity is not directly related to mass, and you can't calculate velocity just from a displacement measurement. You need some more information.
Kinetic energy = (1/2) (mass) (velocity squared)Divide each sideby (velocity squared/2): Mass in kg = ( 2 x energy in joules) / (velocity in m/s) squared
You calculate peak force by multiplying Mass times Velocity divided by time
If you know the initial height and the length of the pendulum, then you have no use for the mass or the velocity. You already have the radius of a circle, and an arc for which you know the height of both ends. You can easily calculate the arc-length from these. And by the way . . . it'll be the same regardless of the mass or the max velocity. They don't matter.
Force equals the mass times the rate of change of the velocity.
the final velocity assuming that the mass is falling and that air resistance can be ignored but it is acceleration not mass that is important (can be gravity) final velocity is = ( (starting velocity)2 x 2 x acceleration x height )0.5
Speed divided by time.
unda
(ignoring friction)yes, it does, the rate of acceleration is tied to the incline angle, so assuming the incline angle remains the same, lengthening the incline will result in a higher terminal velocity. v^2 = (u^2) + (2*a*s)if a mass falls the same vertical distance from rest, regardless of incline angle, its terminal velocity will be the same, converting potential energy (m*g*h), into kinetic energy (0.5m*v^2)
No, it is not.
You don't. Velocity is not directly related to mass, and you can't calculate velocity just from a displacement measurement. You need some more information.
Kinetic energy = (1/2) (mass) (velocity squared)Divide each sideby (velocity squared/2): Mass in kg = ( 2 x energy in joules) / (velocity in m/s) squared
You calculate peak force by multiplying Mass times Velocity divided by time
1/2mv^2 = mgh
yes it does. u can calculate the final velocity of the falling object with the following eqn: initial potential energy= final kinetic energy or mgh = 1/2mv2 where m=mass, h = height,v=final velocity