When can the mechanical advantage be equal to the VR?

Answer 1

Decades of precise and repeatable experiments have failed to find a case in which

they are not equal. Some observers have gone so far as to suggest that it is a law

of nature that these two quantities are in fact always equal, and that their equivalence

is quite independent of the efficiency of the machine.

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Exactly ! The theoretical Mechanical Advantage that you would expect or

like to get is termed the "Ideal Mechanical Advantage", and the asker asked

"When is the ideal ... equal to the ideal ... ?" I claim that this singlequantity

is equal to itself always and under all conditions, and I said so in my response.

To take up the matter of what M.A. you would actually realize in a real-world

mechanical system is entirely beyond the letter of the question. I strive at all

times to avoid answering a question that was not asked. In other words, when

I respond to the Question "What time is it ?", I resist the instinct to describe

the history, design, manufacture, and home construction of clocks.

As you so perceptively point out, the question is meaningless. I tried to deliver

an answer that responded appropriately.

Answer 2

The mechanical advantage can be equal to the VR when the VR is slightly larger than the MA. Mechanical advantage (MA) is the measure of the force that is achieved by using a tool.