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Which if the following machines always has a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
A machine with a mechanical advantage of less than 1 is always a Class 3 lever. In a Class 3 lever, the effort force is applied between the fulcrum and the resistance force, resulting in a mechanical advantage always less than 1.
What if you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage that's less than 1 where would you place the fulcrum why?
If you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage less than 1, you should place the fulcrum closer to the load than to the effort. This positioning will result in the load arm being shorter than the effort arm, leading to a mechanical advantage less than 1.
When is it useful for some tasks to have a mechanical advantage less than 1?
The mechanical advantage is less than 1 when the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input. You can move an object far faster than your source of power is capable of working. Such as in the final gears in your car, where the wheels are turning faster than the engine is.
Do all levers have a mechanical advantage?
No, not all levers have a mechanical advantage. The mechanical advantage of a lever depends on the specific positions of the effort, load, and fulcrum. Some levers may have a mechanical advantage of less than 1, resulting in a decrease in force but an increase in distance.
The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?
well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
What increases when you have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
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Which if the following machines always has a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
A machine with a mechanical advantage of less than 1 is always a Class 3 lever. In a Class 3 lever, the effort force is applied between the fulcrum and the resistance force, resulting in a mechanical advantage always less than 1.
What if you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage that's less than 1 where would you place the fulcrum why?
If you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage less than 1, you should place the fulcrum closer to the load than to the effort. This positioning will result in the load arm being shorter than the effort arm, leading to a mechanical advantage less than 1.
Can a machine be useful even if its mechanical advantage is less than 1?
yes
Is an oar a first class lever?
Yes, but its Mechanical advantage is usually less than 1
When is it useful for some tasks to have a mechanical advantage less than 1?
The mechanical advantage is less than 1 when the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input. You can move an object far faster than your source of power is capable of working. Such as in the final gears in your car, where the wheels are turning faster than the engine is.
Do all levers have a mechanical advantage?
No, not all levers have a mechanical advantage. The mechanical advantage of a lever depends on the specific positions of the effort, load, and fulcrum. Some levers may have a mechanical advantage of less than 1, resulting in a decrease in force but an increase in distance.
Why would you want to use a machine with a mechanical advantage less than 1?
Mainly because that's the only kind you can ever get. If you hold out until you find a machine with a mechanical advantage of not less than 1, you'll never get the job done. Or even started.
Is it possible for a first or second class lever to have a mechanical advantage less than one or for a third class lever to have a mechanical advantage greater than one?
Second class lever. . . . Always greater than 1 . Third class lever . . . . . Always less than 1 . First class lever . . . . . Can be greater than 1 or less than 1 depending on position of fulcrum.
The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?
well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat
Why does the mechanical advantage of an inclined plane can never be less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is the ratio of the length of the inclined plane to the height it lifts a load. Since the length is always greater than the height (unless the inclined plane is vertical), the mechanical advantage is always at least 1.
