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No, the mechanical advantage of a hockey stick is never greater than 1. The mechanical advantage is the ratio of output force to input force, so a value greater than 1 would imply that the stick is creating more force than is being put into it, which violates the laws of physics.
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Which lever would have more mechanical advantage?
A longer lever would typically have more mechanical advantage than a shorter lever. Mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the length of the effort arm by the length of the resistance arm; therefore, the longer the effort arm, the greater the mechanical advantage.
What is the mechanical advantage if 50 J are put in and 200 J are produced?
The mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the output force by the input force. In this case, the input work is 50 J and the output work is 200 J. The mechanical advantage would be 4, indicating that the output work is 4 times greater than the input work.
How you would measure the mechanical advantage of a bicycle?
To measure the mechanical advantage of a bicycle, you would compare the input force applied by the rider to the output force produced at the wheels. The mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the output force by the input force. In the case of a bicycle, the mechanical advantage helps determine how efficiently the rider's pedaling translates into forward motion.
How does a decrease in height affect the actual echanical advantage of the inclined plane?
Since the Mechanical Advantage of the inclined plane is inversely proportional to its height, increasing the height would lower your mechanical advantage and lowering the height would increase it.Alternately, mechanical advantage is directlyproportional to an inclined plane's length, therefore increasing the length would increase your mechanical advantage.
Can an inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less then one?
Yes, an inclined plane can have a mechanical advantage of less than one. This would occur when the input force required to move an object up the incline is greater than the output force achieved. In this case, the inclined plane would act as a force multiplier, making it easier to lift an object but requiring a greater input force.
Which lever would have more mechanical advantage?
A longer lever would typically have more mechanical advantage than a shorter lever. Mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the length of the effort arm by the length of the resistance arm; therefore, the longer the effort arm, the greater the mechanical advantage.
What is the mechanical advantage of a movable pully?
for one movable pulley you would get a mechanical advantage of 2
What is the mechanical advantage if 50 J are put in and 200 J are produced?
The mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the output force by the input force. In this case, the input work is 50 J and the output work is 200 J. The mechanical advantage would be 4, indicating that the output work is 4 times greater than the input work.
How you would measure the mechanical advantage of a bicycle?
To measure the mechanical advantage of a bicycle, you would compare the input force applied by the rider to the output force produced at the wheels. The mechanical advantage is calculated by dividing the output force by the input force. In the case of a bicycle, the mechanical advantage helps determine how efficiently the rider's pedaling translates into forward motion.
How does a decrease in height affect the actual echanical advantage of the inclined plane?
Since the Mechanical Advantage of the inclined plane is inversely proportional to its height, increasing the height would lower your mechanical advantage and lowering the height would increase it.Alternately, mechanical advantage is directlyproportional to an inclined plane's length, therefore increasing the length would increase your mechanical advantage.
Can an inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less then one?
Yes, an inclined plane can have a mechanical advantage of less than one. This would occur when the input force required to move an object up the incline is greater than the output force achieved. In this case, the inclined plane would act as a force multiplier, making it easier to lift an object but requiring a greater input force.
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of an inclined plane alwaysess than the theoretical mechanical advantage?
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call an estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher
Would increasing the length of a ramp increase mechanical advantage?
Increasing the length of a ramp does not change the mechanical advantage, as mechanical advantage depends on the ratio of the output force to the input force. The length of the ramp affects the distance over which the force is applied, but not the mechanical advantage itself.
What is the mechanical advantage of ciombined puley?
If I would be knowing, I would have not asked.
How do you get the mechanical advantage of the pulley?
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
How do you get the mechanical advantage of a pulley?
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
