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Because it makes a better story. Remember the Gospels were written anywhere from approximately 20 to 80 years after the death of Jesus. So what he said at a particular time is largely the conjecture of the Gospel's authors.

Consider the following from "The Jesus Myth" by R.G. Price: "It is also important to note that most of the apocalyptic and Messianic literature prior to the Gospel of Mark was written in Semitic languages, Hebrew, Aramaic, and others, while a distinguishing feature of "Christian" literature is that it was all written in Greek. Non-Jews wouldn't have had the cultural background to understand the nature of these writings, and they perhaps took it too literally, not understanding it as allegorical and based on scripture, but viewing it as real history."

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