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If life were truly fair, then Christians would have the same access to the Vedas and the Dao de Jing as Hindus and Daoists have to the Christian Bible, and so on. But even access is insufficient, since fairness would require Christians, Hindus, Daoists and others to put aside their own beliefs while they study what is good in the other religions and then decide which religion, if any, they would follow - something few people would do.

The religions of the ancient Greeks and Romans had their values, even if they did not have a single 'book of God', and even if they were persecuted out of existence by the emergent Christian faith. Is it fair that, because Christians of the fourth and fifth centuries so comprehensively destroyed the pagan writings, they are not available to modern Christians?

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9y ago
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4d ago

The availability of religious texts is influenced by a complex array of historical and cultural factors. While it may seem unfair that some people did not have access to certain texts in history, it is important to consider the broader context in which religious knowledge was transmitted. Different cultures and societies had varying means of preserving and disseminating religious teachings, and access to such texts was not always universal. Ultimately, understanding and practicing the core values and teachings of a religion can often be achieved through a variety of means beyond just reading a specific text.

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9y ago

It isn't clear, from your question, exactly what book you are talking about when you say "the Book of God". Please note that different religions each have their own Holy Scriptures, which they consider to be the Book (or Books) of God; for example, Christians have The Bible, Muslims have the Quran, Jews have the Torah (among others), Bahá'ís have the Most Holy Book (among others), etc.

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9y ago

That wouldn't have been a problem had God written the book himself, instead of waiting for people to do it.

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Q: Is it fair that the book of God was not available to some people in history?
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