The book of Psalms is actually the ancient Hebrew songbook, and Psalm 119 is an especially long song, with 176 verses. To make it easier for the temple singers to remember the lines, the psalmist designed it as an alphabetic psalm.
ALEPH is the first letter of the Hebrew Alphabet, BETH is the second....etc...
There are 22 stanzas in Ps 119, and EACH LINE of the first stanza, under the Hebrew letter Aleph, starts with the letter Aleph in Hebrew.
Each line of the second stanza starts with the second Hebrew letter Beth, and EACH LINE follows suit, and it goes on like this through the 22 letters of the Hebrew alphabet(8 Hebrew lines to a stanza).
The Hebrew Temple singers didn't have books to read from, they had to memorize these songs. This technique helped.
AnswerBefore 1881, translations of the New Testament were based on copies of Greek manuscripts known as the Textus Receptus (Latin for "Received Text"), or the Latin Vulgate. In the 19th and 20th centuries, older Greek manuscripts were discovered, causing Bible scholars to revise what they believe was the correct text of the New Testament. The latest revision of this Greek Text is the United Bible Societies' The Greek New Testament (published by United Bible Societies, 4th Edition abbreviated as UBS4). The UBS4 differs from the Received Text at thousands of points. Not all manuscripts contain all four gospels of the New Testament, and many are only partial or even fragmentary.One of the very earliest is Papyrus 45, which contains the gospels and Acts, is dated to around 225 CE. Slightly earlier manuscripts exist, but do not contain Mark.A very early manuscript known as 7Q5, found at Qumran among the "Dead Sea Scrolls" has been seen by some scholars as a copy of two verses from Mark 6:52-3. This would potentially be the earliest fragment of Mark's Gospel, as it would predate the destruction of the Temple in 70 CE. However other scholars have rejected the view that this fragment is from Mark, and it is no longer generally accepted. An extension of the "Dead Sea Scrolls" position is provided by Robert Eisenman, who believes that Christianity was really an evolution of the Qumran sect (The Dead Sea Scrolls and the First Christians), but once again, this is not a widely supported position. It is perhaps more likely that Mark based verses 6:52-3 on the document found at Qumran, without being a member of the community.Later, important manuscripts, that date from the mid-4th to the early 5th century, include Codex Vaticanus, Codex Aleph (Codex Sinaiticus), Codex Alexandrinus.AnswerIf you are referring to an almost entire manuscript of the Gospel of Mark, then you would go to Codex Vaticanus at around 300 AD, closely followed by Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph) dated at around 350 AD. These however, are not quite complete as they have space allocated for missing verses at the end of Mark and then continue into Luke. In fact, in the Vaticanus manuscript, the space left for the ending is the only such space left in the entire manuscript. Seven early church writers (all who pre-date the two manuscripts which omit the ending) have also directly quoted from the ending or else referred to it and so, since it is also in the great majority of manuscripts, it is rightly regarded as genuine. Further to this, both the two codices which omit the ending are notoriously unreliable manuscripts and have thousands of errors between them.It has been proposed that a fragment from Qmran, known as 7Q5 contains Mark 6:52-53. From what is known of Qmran, it would appear that this fragment pre-dates AD 70. However, the fragment is small and the identification has not been sufficient to convince most scholars.The next oldest fragment, known as the Chester Beatty Papyrus or P45 dates from the early to the middle of the third century or around 200- 250 AD. This contains parts of Mark 7, although it is considered that it originally contained all the Gospels and Acts.Codex Bezae, dated AD 450 plus would appear to be the earliest existing manuscript to contain the entire Gospel of Mark.
Lazarus, in the story of the rich man and the beggar, was a leper. The other Lazarus, who was raised from the dead, was not.This story of Lazarus the beggar appears in Luke 16:19-31. There is mentioned that Lazarus had "sores" (King James Version) but nothing is said about him being a leper. If he was a leper, most likely he would not have been permitted to "be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man's table: moreover the dogs came and licked his sores (v 21)." If he was a leper, being leprosy was contagious, neither of these actions would have been permitted. In other words, his social status would not have allowed him to be in such close proximity particularly to a wealthy or "rich man." Additionally, there is nothing in this story that alludes to Lazarus, the brother of Mary and Martha, who Jesus raised from the dead, being the same person as Lazarus the beggar.AnswerThe six New Testament Gospel accounts: involving Lazarus the brother of Mary and Martha; Simon the Leper, Simon the Pharisee; and Lazarus the beggar feeding from the rich man's table; and the woman or women who so spectacularly and "memorably" anointed Jesus' feet at such great cost; on one hand seem to be related to each other. On the other hand there seem to be so many differences that up to three different incidents, possibly in three different houses and three different towns at three different stages of Jesus' ministry occurred.Amidst all this confusion, and the various assumptions different commentators use to try and bridge the gaps or make the connections, one seemingly innocuous point could possibly solve the puzzle. The accounts do seem to comprise a conundrum or enigma. These famous and well-known Biblical event-accounts are perhaps the most enigmatic, probably because of the emotions of the women at Jesus' feet, but a solution to this enigma may provide a key to unlocking others.The key here is to consider the Hebrew word for "leper". The next point is to understand what Hebrew does. grammatically, to say someone "became a leper". No one was born with leprosy, though one man was born blind. Most information from the Bible supports the fact that leprosy was a disease one caught because it was contagious or 'in the air'. "Leper" in Hebrew is tsara or zara. Hebrew uses the verb "to be" with a lamed ('L') so that he "became a leper" reads "haytah l'zara". Transliterated into Greek, where 'us' or 'os' is added to indicate the status of the noun, we get Lazarus. Now if Simon the Pharisee had become a leper soon after Luke's account, very early in Jesus' ministry, and later in Luke we see Jesus visit Mary and Martha, it is possible that Simon now Lazarus, subsequently died after perhaps 4 days going into deep coma or whatever, and Jesus came to resurrect him, which He did. Thus we see that all these events occur in the one house but in two quite different occasions early and late in Jesus' ministry, in the one town named Bethany, outside the city of Jerusalem's walls, accounting for the sinner woman coming to gate-crash the first party (in Luke's account) while Simon-Lazarus is part of the wealthy pharisaic community set. All accounts involving the women anointing Jesus' feet are thus in the same household which Jesus visited according to Luke's account obviously after Lazarus had to leave it because of his disease. Simon-Lazarus only returned back to his own household with his two sisters after his resurrection.All this explains one reason why the Jewish leaders then wanted to kill Lazarus along with Jesus. The 'Leper healing' was an embarrassment to the leaders because along with the healing of the 'Man Born Blind', another full chapter in John's Gospel along with the 'Raising of Lazarus', and the exorcism of the deaf-dumb man, healed lepers were one of the three specific miracles the leaders had earlier (just before the Birth of Jesus) designated that only the Messiah or God could perform. But the Pharisees especially hated Jesus because He did not abide by the rules they had added to the Laws of Moses which effectively bonded the common people to them making them quite rich in the process. Simon, humbled by Jesus' little lesson about the man with the big debts who had been forgiven much, contracted leprosy so that Jesus could heal him. Whether Lazarus repented and believed Jesus before his death, or only after, is a question perhaps, but the faith of his two sisters may have led Jesus to resurrect Lazarus, after which he certainly was a believer. That may, of course what was behind the discussion between the rich man and Abraham in the parable about the beggar named Lazarus and the Rich Man. In parables, the people are never named and are always anonymous. That parable is different. Which means that it is almost certain the beggar in the parable also "became a leper" so that he to was l'tsara or Lazarus.Another assumption behind all this is that the Gospel texts we read had an underlying Hebrew draft from which the Greek translations were lifted. Since most scholars believe Aramaic was the underlying language from which the Greek was lifted, this point about Hebrew grammar with the verb 'to be' and the 'lamed' preposition would rarely have occurred to them. However, this becomes yet another vexing question for scholars and commentators. What these accounts actually show is that there are some seriously wrong assumptions being made about the origin of the Gospels.On a final note regarding this, another issue that led this commentator to suspect there was one household, one family, at one town - Bethany - but at two quite different stages of Jesus' Ministry (very beginning and very end), is the question of the two cities Israelites built for Pharaoh (Exodus 1:11) or "Eth Pithom and Eth Raamses". Elsewhere it is shown that they were two capital cities of Egypt on the same site in two different eras (1500 BC and 600 BC), not two different cities in two different parts of Egypt in the same era as Moses (1500 BC). Jeremiah tells us that he went to Egypt in 600 BC to find Israelites once again at the brick kilns for the construction activity at Migdol. The 'eth' before the names of the towns "Pithom and Raamses" is comprised of the Hebrew letters aleph and tav or the Greek Alpha and Omega ('A and Z'). In this form the word is a simple definite article but the Hebrew grammar in that passage does not require it. So why put it there? The answer to that goes beyond the scope of this question except to say that these two letters play a very interesting role in the Hebrew Old Testament text. Jesus said at the end of the Bible, "I am the Alpha and Omega" which in Hebrew would be "The Aleph and Tav". It appears to be a clue to decoding the Bible.
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Aleph is the name of a Hebrew letter, not a person. All 150 psalms in the Bible include the letter aleph (א).
A:Biblical tradition holds that most of the psalms were written by Kings David and Solomon, as well as Asaph and Aleph at the time attributed to the United Monarchy. However, scholars say that the psalms were a literary genre unknown at this time in history. They were actually written during and after the Babylonian Exile. All the psalms were written anonymously, so we do not know how many authors were involved. A:There were mainly four authors Aleph , Asap h, David and Solomon.
There are no fewer than 26 verses which each contain the entire aleph-bet. Here are some examples: Exodus 16:16, Deuteronomy 4:34, Joshua 23:13, Isaiah 5:25. There are also some Psalms that are acrostics, where each line begins with a letter from the Hebrew alphabet, starting with א and ending with ת.
Aleph Zadik Aleph was created in 1924-05.
It is a curious fact of the Book of Genesis that there is one word that literally cannot be translated. The word (in Hebrew) is spelled Aleph-Tav. In Genesis 1:1 it says "in the beginning God created (aleph-tav)the heavens and the earth." Aleph-Tav in the Hebrew is a very strange word. Translated literally, it is A-Z...the Beginning and The End. But in Hebrew, this is a different type of word, it is an active noun. Since there is no such part of grammar in the English, there is no accurate way to translate it with any "flow" such as is normally translated. But it actually could be translated as "In the beginning, God created The Beginning and The End (which) created the heavens and the earth." However, this sounds very strange, so generally the word is not translated. In my opinion, it is THE WORD. Note in the Revelation of John, in Revelation 1:11, the phrase "Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end" is used. From the Greek, Alpha-Omega translates to Aleph-Tav, or our own A-Z. Also note in St. John 1:1, "In the beginning was THE WORD..." This ONE word is Aleph-Tav; the word that is not translated in the English.
The psalms have traditionally been ascribed to Kings David and Solomon, and their contemporaries. In fact, some psalms have individually been ascribed to David, Solomon, Aleph or others. Psalms 146-150 do not carry a forenote in the King James Bible, ascribing them to any of these supposed authors. In fact, scholars say that the psalms are a literary genre unknown at the time attributed to David and Solomon. They say that the psalms were all written over a period of more than two hundred years, during and after the Babylonian Exile. We do not know who actually wrote any of the psalms, so we do not know who wrote Psalms 146 to 150.
Aleph Samach was created in 1893.
An aleph number is any of a sequence of numbers used to represent the cardinality of infinite sets, denoted by the Hebrew letter aleph.
Sets are classified according to their cardinality: a measure of the number of elements that it contains. The cardinality of a set may be finite, aleph-null or aleph-one. Aleph-null is the number of integers (or rational numbers). Aleph-one
The Aleph - short story - was created in 1945-09.
There are countably infinite (Aleph-Null) of such numbers.
Aleph at Hallucinatory Mountain was created on 2009-05-18.