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Is it true gender serves as the primary basis for social inequality?
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Sex, actually: gender refers to abstract concepts or inanimate nouns; not human beings..
It depends on the particular society. In many Muslim & Roman Catholic countries, and other countries or regions affected by powerful patriarchal religions, definitely yes.
In affluent Western democracies, inequality based on sex is fading, thankfully, but that based on wealth is still strong. The old notions of "class" are thought old-fashioned now, but its underlying drive - wealth - is still to the fore.
There are also countries divided by old sectarian ideology that is not itself necessarily sexist, such as the Hindu Caste System and a significant part of the Northern Irish "Troubles" of the 1970s and '80s.
Elsewhere, race rather than sex, creed or wealth is still a divisive factor.
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
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Elements of social policy of gender inequality in the workplace?
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