Probability

That depends on what kind of dice you are rolling and how many of them you roll. If you roll two 6-sided dice once, the probability of getting the number 100 is exactly zero. You cannot get a 100 on one roll of two 6-sided dice. Other dice and different numbers of them may yield different probabilities.

The first answer wasn't valid at all.

The first answer 5 out of 3 doesn't make sense. It would depend a lot on where you were enforcing the law as well as what type of law enforcement you do. Someone in Tokyo would have almost no chance, while someone in Bahgdad would be almost certain to have a gunfight at soome point. In the US it is uncommon for the average policeman to ever fire his weapon in the line of duty, except at the range.

Since the numbers (number of dots) on normal dice only go from 1 - 6, then I would think the probability of getting the number 100 is zero.

There are 6 different doubles that can be rolled. (They are 1 and 1, 2 and 2, etc.) You have a 6/36 chance of rolling doubles. The fraction 6/36 simplifies (reduces) to 1/6. Your 1 in 6 chance of rolling doubles now needs to be converted to probability. Probability speaks to the "chance" that something will occur. It is expressed as a "pure" number, and the range of probability is from 0 to 1. The probability 0 means that it cannot occur, and the probability 1 means that it will or must occur. Everything else falls in between. If you have a 1 in 6 chance of rolling doubles that translates into a 1 divided by 6 probability, or a 0.1666666... probability that a double will come up.

3

Usually 1/52, Unless Jokers are included in whatever game, then it would be 1/54. This is of Course subjectively requiring that you have only one full deck of playing cards, and only one Ace of Spades

lets say you have a better chance of winning the lottery you have a better chance of getting hit by lightning then winning the lottery

1/52 Which as a decimal is 0.01923076923076923076923076923 Which as a percent it is

1.923076923076923076923076923% (: Well, probably not exactly what you wanted but here some math. Oh and that number is real I did it on a calculator! Check it!

There are two numbers less that three and 6 possible outcomes, so 2/3 or the time you would have a number less than three. So probability is 2/3 or 66% Alternate explanation: 2 to 1 against. A six sided die has two numbers less than three and four numbers three or more, so the odds of less than three are 2 in six, or 1 in three.

The chance for each toss is 1/2. The chance of all three flips being tails is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8. So the probability of at least one head is 7/8.

This can be calculated easily by multiplying the chances of getting one head in one toss for a fair coin (half) by itself(half) to give a quarter (1/4 or 1 in 4). If you wanted the chances of at least one head in 2 tosses, then the chances would be for anyhting exept 2 tails in a row, which is 1 - 0.25(quarter), which is 0.75 (3/4 or 3 quarters or 3 in 4)

zero

I'm going to assume you're looking for the probability of getting three heads out of three coin spins and that you're using a fair coin. For coin spins, theoretical probability is very simple. The probability of getting three heads in a row is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8. This means that if you tossed a coin three times, you'd expect to see three heads once every 8 trials. For experimental probability you need to define clear trials, for this experiment you can't just spin a coin over and over and count the number of times you see three heads in a row, for example, if you threw the following: H T H H T T H H H H H T T H T T T you have three cases where you have three heads in a row, but they all overlap so these are not independent trials and cannot be compared to the theoretical result. When conducting your experiment, you know that if you get a T in your trial, it doesn't matter what comes after, that trial has already failed to get three heads in a row. The trial is deemed a success if you get three heads in a row, naturally. As a result, if you threw the above sequence, you would to determine your experimental probability in the following way: H T fail H H T fail T fail H H H success H H T fail T fail H T fail T fail T fail In this example we have 8 trials and one success, therefore the experimental probability is 1/8. The sample variance (look it up), however is also 1/8, meaning that all you really know is that the experimental probability could be anywhere between 0 and 1/4. The only way to get the variance down (and therefore reduce your confidence interval) is to perform more and more trials. It's unlikely for the theoretical probability and experimental probability to be EXACTLY the same but the more trials you do, the more the experimental probability will converge on the theoretical probability.

Draw a circle. Everyone puts marbles in the circle and tries to shoot them out of the circle . When you shoot one out it becomes yours. A larger marble is used as the "shooter".

There are 6 black face card in a deck of 52 cards, so the probability of getting a black face card is 6/52 = 3/26

The diagonals of a square are always perpendicular.

Denote by mu the mean of X. Given

P(X>5.52)=0.305

i.e.,

P((X-mu)/4> (5.52-mu)/4)=0.305

So, letting Z=(X-mu)/4. Then Z~N(0,1). Hence, the above equality is

P(Z>(5.52-mu)/4)=0.305. So,

(5.52-mu)/4=0.51

So,

mu=5.52-4*0.51=3.48

So, the best answer is 3.5

513

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18 3
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18

"Spinner" (Adjective - Slang) Used among some men to describe an extremely petite young woman, usually with a lot of sex appeal - the term is thought to reference the small stature and weight of the woman; (IE she is so petite she could be spun around while riding the man during sex). Ex: Man #1- "Aw man, look at that girl, she's so tiny." Man #2- "yeah, she's a spinner."

7.7% or 4 chances out of 52.

If you mean what is the probability of getting a heads/tails, it is a 1 in 2 chance (50/50 chance). You are just as likely to get a heads as you are to get a tails.

1/4

CACA and caca and i forgot caca