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I don't know, but it certainly would have nothing to do with why Spaniards pronounce soft c and z with the 'th' sound. If it had something to do with it perhaps they would pronounce the s with a "th" sound. Anyway, how would an entire people come to imitate the speech impediment of a king during a time when a minute fraction of the people would have ever heard the man speak? Furthermore the distinction of the soft c and z from the s has important utilitarian aspects allowing the hearer to know what the speaker means when using words that would otherwise sound the same if spoken in American style Spanish.

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