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it was something to do with his teachers because he was to young to become king he became king when he was 9

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16y ago

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Was the Church of England Catholic in 1630?

The Church of England in and of itself is a Protestant church. It split from the Catholic Church around 1526 under Henry VIII.


Was England under the Catholic rule after the 1600s?

John Milton, wrote paradise lost in this same time period during the 1600's and his writing was actually very tuned to a protestant audience. It was regarded highly in England because the population was mainly Protestant. So no, I don't believe that England was under Catholic rule after the 1600's


Why did Spain attack England in the late 1550s?

Spain attacked England in the late 1550s primarily due to religious and political tensions. England, under Queen Elizabeth I, had become a Protestant nation, while Spain, ruled by Catholic King Philip II, sought to restore Catholicism in England. The conflict was further fueled by England's support for Protestant rebels in the Spanish Netherlands and piracy against Spanish shipping. This culmination of religious rivalry and geopolitical interests led to the outbreak of hostilities between the two nations.


How long was England protestant before Charles' reign?

England became officially Protestant during the reign of King Henry VIII in the 1530s when he separated from the Roman Catholic Church. This shift continued under his successors, notably Edward VI, who promoted Protestant reforms. By the time Charles I ascended the throne in 1625, England had been Protestant for nearly 100 years, though the extent and nature of Protestantism varied significantly during that time.


What was the religion in Shakespeare's time?

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In what battle did England become under the French?

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Why was James VI protestant?

James VI of Scotland, who later became James I of England, was Protestant primarily due to the political and religious landscape of the time. He was raised in a Protestant environment after the Reformation, which had significant influence in Scotland. His accession to the English throne in 1603 also aligned with political interests, as uniting England and Scotland under a Protestant monarch was seen as a way to stabilize both kingdoms and promote religious unity. Additionally, his Protestant faith helped him navigate the complex relationship between Catholics and Protestants in England.


What did Queen Elizabeth do in protestant reformation?

Under the doctrine (rules) of the Church of England (the Anglican Church) the authority of the British monarch (currently Queen Elizabeth) is supreme. In practice the Queen delegates this authority either to the parliament or to the leaders of the church.


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Can you become a kids wrestler in England under te age of 13?

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