The singular term Geneva Convention refers to the agreements of 1949.
If the nation which is using the banned weapons has signed the Convention, then yes its against the commitment that nation made when it signed the Convention for that nation to use banned weapons, even against a foe who has not.
The Geneva Convention
Yes. The Geneva Convention bans it, but that's not to say that all countries have signed up to the Convention or that they abide by it.
The Geneva Convention has been signed by 196 states. These include the U.N, Palestine and Cook's Island. Any state that is not one of these groups, has not signed it.
The first Geneva Convention was held on August 22, 1864 in Geneva, Switzerland. The 12 countries involved were: Baden, Belgium, Denmark, France, Hesse, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal, Prussia, Spain, Switzerland and Wuttemberg
The 1929 Geneva Convention, specifically concerning the treatment of prisoners of war, was signed by 47 countries. This convention aimed to establish humane treatment standards for captured military personnel and laid the groundwork for subsequent international humanitarian law. The number of signatories reflected a growing recognition of the need for legal protections during armed conflicts.
If you mean Geneva Convention then yes, it does. It violates article 3 of the Geneva Convention making it a crime.
Geneva Conventions
This is defined as part of the Geneva Convention rules, however not all countries have signed and agreed to be bound by this document.
"The 1949 Geneva Conventions. The first Geneva Convention protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war. This Convention represents the fourth updated version of the Geneva Convention on the wounded and sick following those adopted in 1864, 1906 and 1929. It contains 64 articles."
1949
At the convention, did they say the rights for an asylum seeker?