Common law
No, for example certain people are not allowed to vote.
Polygamy is not allowed in free democratic countries. Polygamous families are very unstable in countries that allow full civil rights to women.
It allowed and encouraged a mass "breakout" of slaves from their owners in the 1800's. Also, was an economical downfall, but a huge civil rights movement.
No, Roman slaves were not allowed to vote. Voting rights were primarily reserved for Roman citizens who were free men. Slaves were considered property and did not have the same legal rights as free citizens.
It allowed for the bloodless over throw of king james2
England is a country. As a country it has the same rights as any other country.
Children's Rights Alliance for England was created in 1991.
The American Bill of Rights Guaranteed the rights for "all men"- and back when it was written, this was taken rather literally: Only property owners were considered citizens and as women were not allowed to own property (except in very rare circumstances) and since African Americans were property, they were not given the same rights. It took many years before "all men" included anyone aside from property owners and even longer before "all men" was treated as meaning "all people".
The patent owners and lessors industry deals with the sale of intangible rights in property.
A persons rights are that you are not allowed to be touched by anyone without your consent
Slaves typically did not own possessions. They were considered property themselves and had no legal rights to own property. Any items they might have been allowed to keep, such as clothing or tools, were usually provided by their owners.
Exactly the same rights as everybody else.