I think this is the correct answer because.....................and...an important person that's all.luv yew
Since Texas was under Spanish rule for several centuries..........It could be many persons
Because they ruled texas
the Spanish
No single country has held effective continuous rule over Texas. Although in effect the Empire of Spain ruled from 1519 to 1821, the Spanish briefly lost control in 1685 to the Kingdom of France before regaining sovereignty in 1689.
Mexico was the first Spanish-ruled county to win independence.
it was ruled mostly from 1519-1521
the land was ruled by the Spanish
NO!! they do not have spanish stores in Texas
What are examples of the Spanish legacy in Texas
Spanish Texas was created in 1690.
Spanish Texas ended in 1821.
'Texas' in Spanish is 'Tejas.'
Texas has no official language, but Spanish is very popular.