Philippine annexation would be peaceful if nobody resisted.
THEY WERE OPPOSED BECAUSE THEY WANTED TO RULE THEMSELVES.
Spain sold the Philippines to the US because Spain had been defeated by the US in the Spanish-American war in 1898 and one of the provisions the US required in the Peace Treaty was the sale of the Philippines
U.S controlled the Philippines.
cause
After the Philippine-American War, the US governed the Philippines as a US possession. As it had promised to do before the war, after World War 2 the US granted independence to the Philippines.
Contrary to popular American belief, the Republic of Philippines is a sovereign independent country. The US has never "acquired them"
They were opposed because they wanted to rule themselves. UDAHA
They obtained some freedom.
literally no. but when it comes to thinking that majority of all the large investments in Philippines are still from US then probably the US can still control anything they own in Philippines. :)
Andrew Carnegie objected to US intervention in Cuba.
NO!
involved covert action by the CIA
No. Furthermore, they never have been. During the time of US control of the Philippines, they were considered US Nationals, but not US Citizens (the big difference being that they can't vote in US federal elections).
The proper quotation was actually "People of the Philippines: I have returned." General MacArthur said this when the US landed on Leyte, Philippines in World War II.
No. The Philippines have not been part of the US since 1946
US military intervention has been a success in some situations and a failure in others. Some of the successes include the intervention during the First World War, while a failure was the intervention in Somalia.
Yes, the US was controled the Philippines in 1944 due to the War between the us and the Philippines.
bfd