answersLogoWhite

0

What else can I help you with?

Continue Learning about U.S. History

Why did the US let the appeasement policy be justified?

The US had nothing to do with appeasement. After the horrors of World War I, the US entered a period of isolationist policy, where it mostly chose to stay out of foreign problems. Additionally, the Great Depression started in 1929 and was still on-going when appeasement started in the mid-1930s. So the US had its own problems to deal with, and had no interest in getting involved in European quarrels.


What was the name of the policy by which the US provided money and supplies to aid in the reconstruction of western Europe following World War 2?

the marshall plan The policy is called the Marshall Plan.


The earliest foreign policy of the US was to avoid entangling alliances?

true, its called isolationism.A policy that tries to avoid foreign alliances and involvement is called isolationism. This policy was the rule of the day in the United States following the horrors of World War I.


How did the US justify the internment of the people described in this excerpt?

The US justified the internment of Japanese Americans during World War II primarily through national security concerns, claiming that individuals of Japanese descent posed a potential threat of espionage or sabotage following the attack on Pearl Harbor. Government officials argued that the internment was necessary to protect the country from possible subversion. This rationale was further supported by wartime hysteria and racial prejudice, leading to a widespread acceptance of the policy despite the lack of evidence for any actual disloyalty among Japanese Americans.


Which word best describes early American policy?

This entirely depends on what policies we are talking about, be they educational policy, military policy, foreign policy, trade policy, etc.As concerns foreign policy, US foreign policy in its first few decades was NEUTRALITY, meaning that the US would stay out of long-term alliances, treaties, engagements, and wars with the major European powers.

Related Questions

Why did the US let the appeasement policy be justified?

The US had nothing to do with appeasement. After the horrors of World War I, the US entered a period of isolationist policy, where it mostly chose to stay out of foreign problems. Additionally, the Great Depression started in 1929 and was still on-going when appeasement started in the mid-1930s. So the US had its own problems to deal with, and had no interest in getting involved in European quarrels.


Why did the US initially follow the appeasement policy toward Germany?

The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.


What did the appeasement policy of the US Britain and France have on German aggression?

It encouraged more agression


Why did the US initially follow a policy of appeasement toward Germany?

The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.


Why did the US initially follow policy of appeasement towards Germany?

The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.


Us policy whose goal was to keep the Soviets from gaining control of other countries?

appeasement


What impact the appeasement policy of the US Britain and France have on German aggression?

It encouraged more agression


Was the entry of the US into the Vietnam war justified?

The policy at the time was the Domino Theory, so in protection and practice of the theory, yes it was justified.


Why did Channon claim appeasement was the right policy?

He has never been proved more abundantly right for he gave us six months of peace in which Channon rearmed, and he was right to try appeasement.


Why did the Japanese start World War 2?

They didn't, it was Germany who started it. The US and Britain had the policy of appeasement which led to the escalation of the War.


Why did Britain France and the US not stop fascists aggression in the 1930s?

The policy that France and Britain pursued against aggressive nations during the 1930s is known as appeasement. It is a policy of granting concessions to a potential enemy in the hope that it will maintain peace.


Was the US justified in not allowing more Jewish refugees to immigrate into the us?

No. That policy enabled the Nazis to kill very many Jews who could have been saved.