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Why did the US let the appeasement policy be justified?
The US had nothing to do with appeasement. After the horrors of World War I, the US entered a period of isolationist policy, where it mostly chose to stay out of foreign problems. Additionally, the Great Depression started in 1929 and was still on-going when appeasement started in the mid-1930s. So the US had its own problems to deal with, and had no interest in getting involved in European quarrels.
What was the name of the policy by which the US provided money and supplies to aid in the reconstruction of western Europe following World War 2?
the marshall plan The policy is called the Marshall Plan.
The earliest foreign policy of the US was to avoid entangling alliances?
true, its called isolationism.A policy that tries to avoid foreign alliances and involvement is called isolationism. This policy was the rule of the day in the United States following the horrors of World War I.
Which word best describes early American policy?
This entirely depends on what policies we are talking about, be they educational policy, military policy, foreign policy, trade policy, etc.As concerns foreign policy, US foreign policy in its first few decades was NEUTRALITY, meaning that the US would stay out of long-term alliances, treaties, engagements, and wars with the major European powers.
What events led the US to go into World War 2?
the bombing of pearl harbor and failure of appeasement i got this answer out of my history book and from my history teacher so it is correct
