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Can a seller transfer a deed to the buyer if a federal tax lien is against the property and can the property be settled?
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago
NO.
You cannot transfer the ownership of the property UNTIL the lien is paid off, in full.
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago
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Transfer real estate property by will?
The transfer is done by the executor of the estate once the estate is settled. The will indicates who gets the rights in the property, but they are still subject to mortgage and liens and other items.
Can a property be sold that has a lean?
You can certainly sell prpoerty that has a lien. However, the lien will have to be settled to transfer a clear title. This is usually part of the closing process.
Can I quick deed my father's house he died in March?
If you are not on the title, no, you cannot quit claim the deed. The executor of the estate will have to execute a transfer of the property, once the estate is settled.
What happens to a person's house after a lien is filled?
It is legally possible in most situations for a lien holder to request the forced sale of a home or property. This rarely happens, generally the lien will remain against the home until the homeowner wants to refinance, sell, transfer or initiate any action concerning the property. Before any transactions can take place all liens must be paid or satisfactoriyl settled. Liens against real property accrue interest making it possible for a small debt to rapidly turn into a large one.
When was the last lawsuit against GN Netcom settled?
The lawsuit involving GN Netcom Inc and Skullcandy Inc was settled in June of 2010. In August 2011 the federal court rejected the settlement of a case involving many lawsuits against GN Netcom Inc and other makers of headsets.
Can your mother Quitclaim her house to you if there is a judgment lien against the property?
No. The property cannot be transferred, sold nor refinanced until the judgment lien is paid/settled or the judgment holder consents to the act. In California, we see people do it all the time. They file a Quit Claim, and transfer title to the property to someone else. They do not realize, however, that the lien is still on the property. So, if your mother quit claims her house to you, when YOU go to sell it, you will have to pay your mother's judgment. Or, the judgment holder may come after the property with a Quiet Title action. When they prevail with that, then they will do an action to partition the property, and it will be sold.
Can a settlor transfer property to trustee for the settlor and trustee?
Yes, a settlor can transfer property to a trustee for the benefit of both the settlor and the trustee. This is known as a self-settled trust, where the settlor retains some level of interest or benefit in the trust assets while also creating a trust for another beneficiary, such as the trustee. However, self-settled trusts may have restrictions or be subject to specific rules depending on the jurisdiction.
How do you claim the right of the property from non-custudial parent?
Property rights are settled in court by a court decree.
What is vesting assent in an estate of a deceased?
A vesting assent is given by a personal representative of an estate in the UK to convey legal ownership of property that is the subject of a bequest or devised to a tenant-for-life of 'settled property'. 'Settled property' is a complex feature of UK property law. You can read more about it at the link provided below.
Can estate be settled if property hasn't sold?
It is possible to settle an estate without selling property. As long as the distribution is approved by the court, the property can be transferred to the beneficiaries.
How do you remove a judgment from a home that was awarded in a divorce if the deed to the property was never transferred to the non debtor ex-spouse?
If the judgment lien was placed before the divorce and not paid or settled the property could not have been conveyed to another party regardless of the terms divorce decree. If the couple lived in a community property state the property lien is against both of them even though only one spouse incurred the debt and the awarding of the home in the divorce decree is irrelevant as to the validity of the judgment. Before the deed can be conveyed to the spouse who was awarded the property the judgment will have to be paid or settled according to the terms of the lien holder.
How would disputes between the federal government and the states be settled?
its anything you put your mind to
