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Not exactly. Corpus Delicti is what is commonly referred to as , "the body of a crime", or elements of a crime. Elements of a crime include a bonafide injury and an act which produced such injury (a criminal act).
Here's a few case citations to illustrate:
"Two elements comprise the corpus delecti of a crime: (1) the basic injury…(2) the fact that the basic injury was the result of a criminal, rather than a natural or accidental, cause. State v. Thomas, 78 Ariz. 52, 59, 275 P.2d 408, 413 (1954)." State v. Atwood, 832 P.2d 593, 614, 171 Ariz. 576
"In every criminal trial, the prosecution must prove the corpus delecti, or the body of the crime itself-i.e., the fact of injury, loss or harm, and the existence of a criminal agency as its cause." People v. Sapp, 73 P.3d 433, 467 (Cal. 2003) [quoting People v. Alvarez, (2002) 27 Cal.4th 1161, 1168-1169, 119 Cal.Rptr.2d 903, 46 P.3d 372.].
the corpus delecti of a crime minimally requires two elements: "(1) An injury which is penally proscribed…and (2) The unlawfulness of some person's conduct in causing that injury." People of the State of Colorado v. Smith, 510 P.2d 893, 182 Colo. 31.
A strict liability crime is usually referred to as a "public welfare offense". THe element of such crime which is disposed of is "criminal intent", or the "Mens Rae" (guilty mind). There are no cases which show that the original intention of strict liability criminal cases were to dispose of corpus delecti to the degree that they can easily be shown to intend to dispose of Mens Rae.
In other words, there has to be a damaged party even in a strict liability criminal case. However, the state needs to make money off of people who work for a living, so they try to get away with penalizing people for traffic violations and the like, in the abscence of a corpus delecti, which is absolutely necessary in ANY criminal case.
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