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The answer you are looking for is "Persia", but this is incorrect.

At exactly 1500 C.E., Iran was not under a unitary government. The Timurids lost power in 1458 and the Safavids came to power in 1502, as a result, different parts of Iran were under different empires of the Oghuz Türks. Even if the European in question was referring to Persia as a geographic region, the name Persia would be different in different languages depending on the European State (athough most are similar to either Perjza or Persiya in pronunciation).

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Q: What name would a European have called Iran in 1500 CE?
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