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Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
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What did they call the rich people from Shakespeare's plays?
high flyers
When were Shakespeare's plays made?
Shakespeare wrote his plays between 1590 and 1613 approximately.
What made Shakespeare's plays interesting?
For me it was the twists that were in the plays.
Did William Shakespeare become rich?
Well , William Shakespeare was well-to-do when he was first born, but his father's business did not succeed, and William and Anne were thrown into poverty by Will's early marriage. His plays and poems made him (eventually) rich . "Poor and content is rich and rich enough." - William Shakespeare .
Did Shakespeare only perform to rich people?
No, his plays were also performed to poor people
How did Shakespeare plays affect the kings men?
The King's Men was the name for the theatrical company formerly known as the Lord Chamberlain's men after King James I became their patron in 1603. Shakespeare was a member of this company and all of the plays he wrote after 1594 were the exclusive property of the company. So, if you wanted to see a play by Shakespeare, you had to see the King's Men perform it. Since Shakespeare's plays were very popular, this meant big crowds and more money for the members of the company. So, how do Shakespeare's plays affect the King's Men? They made them rich.
What plays plays Shakespeare rich?
Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
What was the purpose that William Shakespeare wrote his plays?
Shakespeare wrote his plays to make money. He was part owner of a theatre company and they made more money if they had new plays and good plays to put on. Shakespeare was able to provide the company with both.
What famous literature was made during the renaissance?
Shakespeare Plays
How rich was William Shakespeare?
William Shakespeare was not rich but was reasonably well-to-do.
What was William Shakespeare's achievement?
hIS ACHIEVEMENT WAS HOW MANY PLAYS HE MADE SUCESSFULLY!
What are three kind of plays that Shakespeare made?
Comedies, tragedies and histories.
