You have two. One is to foreclose on the lien by forcing a sale of the realty to raise money to pay the judgment. Usually, when proceedings like this get to this point, the owner comes up with the money somehow in order to save his home as long as there is some equity in the property. Your other option is to sit tight and wait until the owner wants to sell the property for whatever reason. He won't be able to sell it with a lien on it, so at that time he will have to come up with the money from the proceeds of the sale, if there is equity, or from his own pocket, if there is none to pay the lien. While you sit on the judgment, the judgment amount earns interest according to rates set by the court or the statutes. Be aware though that some states might require you to go after the owner's personal assets first before going after his house.
The business can use the easement if it was granted the use of that easement in their deed.The business can use the easement if it was granted the use of that easement in their deed.The business can use the easement if it was granted the use of that easement in their deed.The business can use the easement if it was granted the use of that easement in their deed.
Not in the United States unless she was granted the property by will.Not in the United States unless she was granted the property by will.Not in the United States unless she was granted the property by will.Not in the United States unless she was granted the property by will.
Because a person's property should be sacrosanct, and not subject to taking against their will. Granted, some form of compensation is given, but it is the taker who determines what is paid.
No. Although a Mechanic's Lien can be filed against real property for repairs, improvements etc. done to said property without the necessity of due process (civil suit).
Yes. The lien would be against any interest they own in the property. If only one owner granted a mortgage the other owner still owns their interest free of the mortgage unless they acquired that interest after the mortgage was granted by the owner.
Yes, if the other person resides with your parents and is granted a restraining order against you. If there is a restraining order against you it would mean you could not be on their property if it's too close to that person.
You can appeal on the grounds of insufficient, or ineffective, counsel. It doesn't get granted very often, but it is one option.
No. A life tenancy is granted by the owner of property to another person. For the duration of the life tenant's natural life they have the right to the use and possession of the property covered by the life estate.No. A life tenancy is granted by the owner of property to another person. For the duration of the life tenant's natural life they have the right to the use and possession of the property covered by the life estate.No. A life tenancy is granted by the owner of property to another person. For the duration of the life tenant's natural life they have the right to the use and possession of the property covered by the life estate.No. A life tenancy is granted by the owner of property to another person. For the duration of the life tenant's natural life they have the right to the use and possession of the property covered by the life estate.
No, once the judgment is granted, it applies to you, not your county. All they need is your new address. * Perhaps. If the judgment holder wants to enforce the judgment in a method other than filing an abstract judgment against the debtor's real property then the creditor will have to file a suit in the county where the debtor resides. Judgments granted in one county or state can only be transferred to another county or state as liens against real property owned by the debtor.
Most states granted voting rights to property owners.
Generally, a variance, if granted, is considered to be fair to the applicant as long as it is determined that it won't have a negative impact on the abutting property owners.Generally, a variance, if granted, is considered to be fair to the applicant as long as it is determined that it won't have a negative impact on the abutting property owners.Generally, a variance, if granted, is considered to be fair to the applicant as long as it is determined that it won't have a negative impact on the abutting property owners.Generally, a variance, if granted, is considered to be fair to the applicant as long as it is determined that it won't have a negative impact on the abutting property owners.
Yes. The naturalization process does not require that the applicant not own property.