Who was born of the Immaculate Conception in the Bible?

Answer 1

Answer: The term 'immaculate conception' refers to Mary. Catholics and some other Christians believe that Mary, the Mother of Christ was born without the stain of original sin i.e. immaculately conceived. However, this is not spefically mentioned in The Bible, although the angel Gabriel refers to her as being "full of grace". Of course, Christ being God-incarnate, was completely free of sin.

Answer 2

Nowhere.

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Catholic AnswerThe above answer, nowhere, is technically correct, as with the Trinity, and other concepts, the "Immaculate Conception" is not used in the Bible. However, when the Church wrote the Bible in the first and early second century (the New Testament) and put it together in the fifth century at the Council of Rome, it was not intended as an Encyclopedia of Beliefs. The Bible, is, however, inerrant, it is God-breathed, and nothing in the faith can contradict the Bible. The Immaculate Conception is strongly implied in several passages, and has been believed by Christians throughout the history of the Church, although not defined as an infallible doctrine until recently.

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from A Biblical Defense of Catholicism, by Dave Armstrong, Sophia Institute Press, © 2003

The Immaculate Conception of Mary Pope Pius IX (in the papal bull Ineffabilis Deus) infallibly defined this doctrine as binding upon all Catholics on December 8, 1854.

Genesis 3:15

(known as the "Protoevangelion"): "I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel." Ludwig Ott expounds this verse:

The literal sense of the passage is possibly the following: Between Satan and his followers on the one hand, and Eve and her posterity on the other hand, there is to be constant moral warfare. The posterity of Eve will achieve a complete and final victory over Satan and his followers, even if it is wounded in the struggle. The posterity of Eve includes the Messiah, in whose power humanity will win a victory over Satan. Thus the passage is indirectly messianic.

The seed of the woman was understood as referring to the Redeemer, and thus the Mother of the Redeemer came to be seen in the woman. Since the second century, this direct messianic-Marian interpretation has been expounded by individual Fathers, for example, St. Irenaeus, St. Epiphanius .... St. Cyprian ... St. Leo the Great. However, it is not found in the writings of the majority of the Fathers . . . According to this interpretation, Mary stands with Christ in a perfect and victorious enmity toward Satan and his following. Many of the later scholastics and a great many modern theologians argue, in the light of this interpretation . . that Mary's victory over Satan would not have been perfect, is she had ever been under his dominion. Consequently she must have entered the world without the stain of Original Sin. (Ott, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, 200)

Most Protestant Bible translations follow the King James, or Authorized, Version's lead in rendering kecharitomene, the Greek word, as "favored," as indeed also some recent Catholic versions. The favored (no pun intended!) Traditional Catholic rendering (actually the more literal rendering) is "Hail, full of grace" (for example, Douay, Confraternity, Knox). The word Mary (after hail) is not in the text, but strongly implied, as the angel is addressing her by title; thus we arrive at the phrase "Hail, Mary, full of grace,"

The Bible speaks only implicitly of many things that Protestants strongly believe, such as the proper mode of Baptism (immersion, sprinkling, or pouring?). The Immaculate Conception is entirely possible within scriptural presuppositions.