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Human rights are less likely to be abused in wealthy countries as wealthy people have everything they want and dont need to fights for power... i think

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Q: Why human rights are less likely to be abused in wealthy countries?
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When a question in social studies is asked like this how were the human rights of abused how do you answer it?

You got to re-word the question from " How were the human rights of abused" to How people people's Human right's abused." This question is asking how were peoples human rights abused. The answer is that In some countries and during some time periods e.g. 1930s , were Jews were stripped from all of their rights and they were brutally abused. Simple answer is that: Peoples Human rights were abused by taking away their Human rights and everything they own.


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It is, although all countries (except the USA and Somalia) have signed the Declaration of the Rights of the Child, giving children basic human rights, such as not being neglected or abused. Unfortunately, malnourishment which is out of the hands of their parents (particularly in poorer African countries) still occurs, and many die from diseases such as malaria.


What are the reasons why democratic countries are more likely to respect human rights than non democratic countries?

because thats just the way it is !


Is it true or false that Colonists believed that their rights as Englishmen were being abused by the Bill of Rights?

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Can welfare be abused?

yes, if someone is abusing it then they are not letting someone their rights


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Hell. People had no rights, no liberties, were starved, beaten, and abused.


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