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No one took advantage of his 1492 voyage immediately. For one thing many people didn't know about it and he was considered a failure by the crown. It wasn't until 1498 that Cabot claimed North America for England and that is 6 years after Columbus. That is not immediate. The difference is the technology of ships and if it was in use by the country that sent the explorers.

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7y ago
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Q: Why is it possible for some nations to take advantage of Columbus discovery immediately while others could not?
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