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Generally, a will written prior to marriage is invalidated by the marriage to the extent set forth by state law. The surviving spouse will be provided a share of the estate under most state laws. If the spouse dies owning real property, the surviving spouse will get a share in that property.

In the scenario set forth in the question a man purchased property prior to his marriage and then transferred that first property to a trust before purchasing a second property as joint tenants with his wife. His wife would have no interest in the first property. As long as the trust is valid and the transfer was properly executed, the first property would not be included in the husband's estate if he died.

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Q: A man bought a home prior to marriage then sold it to a trust then purchased another home as joint tenants with his wife. How valid is a will written by a single man after he has married?
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