It depends on when he was on the deed. A person who incurs debt cannot simply transfer their interest in real estate to a relative to avoid their creditors. The court will nullify the deed. That type of transfer is referred to a fraudulent conveyance.
If the debts were incurred after your father transferred his interest to you your property may be safe. You should consult with an attorney.
It depends on when he was on the deed. A person who incurs debt cannot simply transfer their interest in real estate to a relative to avoid their creditors. The court will nullify the deed. That type of transfer is referred to a fraudulent conveyance.
If the debts were incurred after your father transferred his interest to you your property may be safe. You should consult with an attorney.
It depends on when he was on the deed. A person who incurs debt cannot simply transfer their interest in real estate to a relative to avoid their creditors. The court will nullify the deed. That type of transfer is referred to a fraudulent conveyance.
If the debts were incurred after your father transferred his interest to you your property may be safe. You should consult with an attorney.
It depends on when he was on the deed. A person who incurs debt cannot simply transfer their interest in real estate to a relative to avoid their creditors. The court will nullify the deed. That type of transfer is referred to a fraudulent conveyance.
If the debts were incurred after your father transferred his interest to you your property may be safe. You should consult with an attorney.
It depends on when he was on the deed. A person who incurs debt cannot simply transfer their interest in real estate to a relative to avoid their creditors. The court will nullify the deed. That type of transfer is referred to a fraudulent conveyance.
If the debts were incurred after your father transferred his interest to you your property may be safe. You should consult with an attorney.
In short, yes. If the real estate is in your name, it can have a lien placed against it for debts you have incurred.
It depends on what state you are from. But I think that it is 50/50 for everything. * Yes, if the debts were made during the marriage and if the couple reside in a community property state. Debts incurred by either spouse after a legal separation order has been issued are attributed to only the account holder. Debts incurred separately by married couples in a non community property state belong solely to the person who is named on the account regardless of the status of the marriage.
The decedent's estate is responsible for any debts incurred by the decedent.
No, debts that are incurred before a marriage do not become the responsibility of the new spouse.
NO NOT IF THE DEBTS ARE IN THE BANKRUPTCY. If they are included in the bankruptcy, give them your case info/ lawyer's name. After that they can be fined if they continue to call. If the depts are incurred after the bankruptcy then yes they can.
yes * Only if the couple reside in a community property state and the debt is incurred during the marriage. All CP states allow a spouse to use the "innocent spousal" defense concerning marital debts if the spouse was not aware of the debt made or had no control over the matter. Texas and Wisconsin are not "true" community property states when it relates to marital debts solely incurred. In all other states sole debts belong to the spouse who incurred them.
he could not pay his debts incurred publishing a book on architecture.
Only if you signed as a co-guarantor. Otherwise, no.
If the couple Does Not reside in a community property state then a spouse is not responsible for the other spouse's debts when said debts are solely incurred. If the couple does reside in a CP state it does not matter who incurs the debt as the law assigns the married couple equal rights to assets and equal responsibility for debts.
No. Not unless they can prove the debts were incurred for her benefit.
No, Virginia is not a community property state. Therefore spouses are solely responsible for their own debts as long as those debts are not incurred jointly.
No. Florida like several other states treat marital debts as being separate when they are not jointly incurred.