No. She would need her husband's written consent to make the agreement binding. All the owners of the property must sign.
No.
Generally, the grantor signs the deed unless it contains an agreement that the grantee must agree to to make the agreement binding on the grantee.Generally, the grantor signs the deed unless it contains an agreement that the grantee must agree to to make the agreement binding on the grantee.Generally, the grantor signs the deed unless it contains an agreement that the grantee must agree to to make the agreement binding on the grantee.Generally, the grantor signs the deed unless it contains an agreement that the grantee must agree to to make the agreement binding on the grantee.
You can draft a contract that states the terms of sub-letting the office space, and get both parties to sign it. This will make the agreement legally binding.
yes!!
The parties would not have a legal contract. A multiple listing agreement is a contract. In order for a contract affecting real property to be enforceable, all the owners must sign it. If only one owner signs, the other party (the real estate agent) has no agreement with the other owner and the property cannot be listed, marketed, shown or sold.
There is no ownership by a renter in a rental property. Just joint tenancy. If you are a co-owner of a rental property. in equal part, the other co-owner must agree in order to make a legally binding contract. Even if you are a majority owner, doing things against the partner's wishes is just asking for trouble.
To ratify means to approve and make binding an agreement that has been made by someone not able to make it binding himself. Typically, an agreement made between countries can be made by representatives of the countries but it will need to be ratified, i.e, accepted and approved by the countries' governments before it become a legally binding agreement.
No, not if husband titled the property as joint tenants or tenants by the entirety with his wife. The only situation in which he could not make that change would be if he was ordered to hold the property in trust by virtue of some court order or some written agreement.
A verbal agreement may constitute a binding agreement or contract although it must meet certain requirements. Whether the parties have a valid contract is a determination that must be made by a judge. Some agreements must be in writing in order to be binding. These include transactions regarding real estate and an agreement to make a Will.http://smallbusiness.findlaw.com/business-contracts-forms/what-contracts-are-required-to-be-in-writing.html
NO. When two people own property as joint tenants with the right of survivorship and one dies the other AUTOMATICALLY owns the property. You cannot make a claim as an heir at law of the decedent.
You haven't provided enough detail.A verbal agreement may constitute a binding agreement or contract although it must meet certain requirements. Whether the parties have a valid contract is a determination that must be made by a judge. Some agreements must be in writing in order to be binding. These include transactions regarding real estate and an agreement to make a Will.http://smallbusiness.findlaw.com/business-contracts-forms/what-contracts-are-required-to-be-in-writing.html
A rent to lease agreement does not need to be notarized in the state of Idaho. Even though it is not the law, it is a good idea to ensure the quality of services in the contract.
Yes... You can make a legit legal binding agreement over the internet. A pinky promise is a prime exhibit for a legitement agreement. It's almost like signing your name with blood