yes
Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage
Mechanical Energy= Potential energy+ Kinetic energy, so for the mechanical energy to be equal to be potential energy, the kinetic energy must be 0.
Yes. Mechanical energy is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy; this includes gravitational potential energy.
If the useful energy output of a system is equal to the energy input, the following calculation can be done:Efficiency = (Useful energy out) / (Energy In)Efficiency = 1Efficiency = 100%Therefore, the machine you describe does have an efficiency value, which is equal to 100%. Very few situations like this exist though, unfortunately.
At perfect 100% efficiency, the Actual Mechanical Advantage should equal the Ideal Mechanical Advantage.
No. And, depending on the process used for transformation, even changing it into the same form will have differing ease and efficiency.
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage
Mechanical Energy= Potential energy+ Kinetic energy, so for the mechanical energy to be equal to be potential energy, the kinetic energy must be 0.
mechanical energy is equal to the kinetic energy + potential energy "gravitational,elastic"
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Mechanical energy is equal to potential energy plus kinetic energy in a closed system. The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Yes
can an object's mechanical energy be equal to its gravitational potential energy