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It depends on your intent. If it is done to defraud the landlord, it is a felony. If you are simply signing in lieu of your boy or girl friend, or your spouse, probably not.
Of course!! In general it will always be the potential tenant who will sign the lease first.
You can sign a lease before someone else is expired but the lease will have to specify that the start of the renting period is after the other persons lease expired. So if the prior lease says it ends the 1st then the new lease must be dated to start after that. This is not that unusual. Most landlords want to fill the unit as quickly as possible and it can take sometime to go through the process so the will often started as soon as they can. I've done this before. Generally speaking once I get my tenant screening results back, I want to get them locked in as soon as possible.
When assuming a lease you will need to be very careful that you are not agreeing to take on a prior lease holder's debt. Read the contract carefully and do not sign unless you are sure you will not be held liable. A new contract can be negotiated.
Likely not. If they got a better offer, or someone had cash in hand, and you had no written contract, they would be prone to take that person first.
A 'let' is probably referring to a lease (rental of a house) and therefore 'let agreed' on a sign means that someone has said they will sign a lease to rent the house and expect to be moving in shortly (ie the house is no longer available but the lease is still to be signed). Once the lase IS signed the sign will be change to just "let".
A lease IS a contract. If you did not sign it, you do not have a lease.
Prior to having the tenant sign, the landlord would insert the sentence into the lease, "The landlord reserves the right to terminate this lease with ninety days notice." Tenant may request the same terms, or take the tenancy as offered.
you put up a sign that says "for lease"
Apt. or a car.
No, not legally.
Sure, why not?