If they have no lease and there was no previous agreement between the tenant and the owner then I don't see why not. Commonly people give notice to allow the person time to move out and find a new place to live. Perhaps discussing the situation with your tenant and coming to a compromise if they are unable to find immediate accommodations would be a good solution. If not, it is your house and without a lease there is no binding agreement that dictates any warning needed so you should be able to.
Answer #2. I don't think the first answer is sound. I'm not a lawyer but this is my understanding of the case. Firstly, the answer depends very much on local laws such as rent control. The fact it is the owner who wants to move in may have no bearing on the case. Secondly, if the tenant has been paying monthly rent and the owner has been accepting it, then the tenant likely has the same rights as a person with a written month-to-month rental agreement. They are owed the same notice of termination which may be 30, 60, 90 days or more depending on local laws and rent control.
yes !
A tenancy at suffrage is another name for a tenancy at will. It means that the tenant is occupying the property with the permission of the owner but without a lease. It is usually used to describe a tenant who continues to occupy the property after a lease has expired and the owner continues to accept the rent payments.
No. A tenant is using the premises with the permission of the owner.
Probably not.
Generally, in the US - No.
The owner can sell a house under a lease, but the buyer must either honor the terms of the lease or make an offer to get the tenant to break the lease.
If they signed a lease, they have a binding legal document saying that as long as rent is paid they get to live there until the agreement expires... Unless somewhere in the lease agreement that the resident signed there is a clause about terminating residency without cause. When 'you' bought the property, you also bought all loans, expenses, and lease agreements. In short, the new owner may own the property, but the tenant possesses the property until the lease is terminated by mutual agreement or according to its terms.
No. All the owners would need to consent to the lease by signing it. If all the owners of the property, or their duly appointed agent, didn't sign the lease it would not be a valid lease. All the undivided interest owners have the right to the use and possession of the whole property but one owner cannot encumber the whole property.A lease signed by only one of the owners of the property is not binding on the other owners. The tenant would not have their permission to lease their property.
A change in the by-laws of an association should have no effect on a current tenant. A change in the CC&Rs, such as an amendment that applies a rental cap to the community, may change an owner's ability to rent or lease in future. Any current tenant should be protected by the lease agreement and/or the amendment, so that no change in governing documents should force an owner to evict a tenant.
A lessor is someone who grants a lease of something to someone. For example, in a commercial building lease scenario, the lessor is the landlord (building owner), and the tenant will be known as the lessee.
Review your copy of the lease for any language that may void the lease if the property is sold. If there is no provisions to that effect then the new owner should take the property subject to your lease. You may need to speak with an attorney to determine what your rights are.
Once a life tenant releases their life estate they have no rights in the property and no responsibilities regarding the property. It is up to the fee owner to determine the terms for the continued use of the property. The owner may serve notice for the former life tenant to vacate the premises or the owner can require the tenant to sign a lease and pay rent. It is up to the owner.