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Can you force a sale of a property if you have a benificial interest?
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What property is considered TBE property in Pennsylvania?
Tenancy by the entirety is presumed in Pennsylvania when real property is conveyed to a legally married couple. That tenancy shields property from execution on the debts of one spouse. The proceeds from a sale of TBE property are also shielded even after deposited in the bank. Neither tenant can force the sale of TBE property nor can one sell their interest so as to defeat the survivorship rights of the other.Tenancy by the entirety is presumed in Pennsylvania when real property is conveyed to a legally married couple. That tenancy shields property from execution on the debts of one spouse. The proceeds from a sale of TBE property are also shielded even after deposited in the bank. Neither tenant can force the sale of TBE property nor can one sell their interest so as to defeat the survivorship rights of the other.Tenancy by the entirety is presumed in Pennsylvania when real property is conveyed to a legally married couple. That tenancy shields property from execution on the debts of one spouse. The proceeds from a sale of TBE property are also shielded even after deposited in the bank. Neither tenant can force the sale of TBE property nor can one sell their interest so as to defeat the survivorship rights of the other.Tenancy by the entirety is presumed in Pennsylvania when real property is conveyed to a legally married couple. That tenancy shields property from execution on the debts of one spouse. The proceeds from a sale of TBE property are also shielded even after deposited in the bank. Neither tenant can force the sale of TBE property nor can one sell their interest so as to defeat the survivorship rights of the other.
A home inspector should not have an undisclosed financial?
Financial interest in the property or in the sale of the property.
Can siblings force the sale of inherited property in Florida?
Siblings can force the sale of inherited property in Florida. All siblings must agree or the property will have to be sold and split up, as long as each of them are on the property's name and/or will.
Can siblings force a sale of inherited property in Indiana?
It depends on how the estate was distributed. If the property was left to a specific person, no, they cannot force the sale. If it is part of the estate in general, they can force the sale or require the person who wants it to pay them for their share.
If a property is owned jointly and there is a judgment on one of the owners can the property be sold?
A creditor can force the sale of only the debtor's interest in jointly owned property. However, creditors don't often bother to try to sell a half interest in property.On the other hand, if the joint tenants want to sell the property, the lien must be paid off in order to clear the title so the property can be sold. The lien is generally paid from the proceeds of the sale at the time of the closing.In the case of a tenancy by the entirety, a creditor cannot force the sale of the property for a debt made by one of the tenants by the entirety. If the property must be sold by the owners the lien is generally paid off from the proceeds of the sale at the time of the closing.
What is real estate marketing?
Generating interest in a property for sale by advertising using various means and managing the sale of the property through closing or settlement.
Can you petition to force the sale of a property if you own one third interest?
Yes. You can Petition to Partition the property in a court of equity. If allowed, the court would then appoint a commissioner who, if dividing the property is not feasible, will market and sell the property. The net proceeds, after legal expenses, will be equally divided among the tenants in common.
If one spouse has a judgment against them in Florida can the creditor pursue or force the sale of a Connecticut property that is held by joint tenancy?
Generally yes, against the husband's interest only. However, they would need to find the property first and obtain a judgment in Connecticut.
Can you sell your house without your husbands consent you have been divorced for 6 years and you have paid the mortgage?
If your ex-husband has an interest in the property then he must sign the deed. You need to review your divorce decree to determine if there are any provisions that would affect the sale of the property.If your ex-husband has an interest in the property then he must sign the deed. You need to review your divorce decree to determine if there are any provisions that would affect the sale of the property.If your ex-husband has an interest in the property then he must sign the deed. You need to review your divorce decree to determine if there are any provisions that would affect the sale of the property.If your ex-husband has an interest in the property then he must sign the deed. You need to review your divorce decree to determine if there are any provisions that would affect the sale of the property.
Can one owner force 2 others to sell house?
Maybe. Such issues generally end up with the parties who wish to sell the property filing a suit in circuit court to have the property partitioned. The judge decides whether or not the property in question is subject to a forced sale under the existing laws of the state where the property is located.
How do you force the sale of property that has been inheritated by 3 siblings?
It is possible to force the sale. The estate has to settle all debts before transfer of any property. One sibling may buy out the other two if they wish, at fair market value.
Can husband sell jointly owned real estate without his wife's signature in Missouri?
Of course not. If the property is owned by husband and wife only the wife can consent to the sale of her share. The husband can only sell his own interest and not his wife's.Of course not. If the property is owned by husband and wife only the wife can consent to the sale of her share. The husband can only sell his own interest and not his wife's.Of course not. If the property is owned by husband and wife only the wife can consent to the sale of her share. The husband can only sell his own interest and not his wife's.Of course not. If the property is owned by husband and wife only the wife can consent to the sale of her share. The husband can only sell his own interest and not his wife's.
