If you are still married, then telling the husband is the best thing to do, since it will come out in the end. The name of the child is the least of the problem--just do what makes sense in the long run for the child.
It depends on the specific situation. You may consider consulting with a family law attorney to discuss possible legal actions such as divorce, child support, custody, or visitation rights. Each case is unique and requires personalized legal advice.
The husband is presumed to be the father of any child who is conceived or born during the marriage. This presumption can be overcome by genetic testing or acknowledgment of paternity.
The law presumes that the husband is the father of a child conceived or born during a marriage, unless/until proven otherwise. So, the husband would have the same rights concerning that child as any other.
No, a man does not always get custody. If one of the people in a marriage has an affair, it is usually the person not having an affair that gets custody of the child or children.For example, if the husband is having an affair, and the wife wants a divorce, the woman (wife) would get the custody of the child or children, and not the man (husband). This is the same vice versa, too.
Leave him and her behind. If they wanted to be with each other they should have come to you and told you about their affair and not keep it in the dark. Seek a lawyers advice on divorce. Your marriage to me is not salvageable because of the length of the affair and the fact that there is now a love child involved.
NO! You cant force half children to have a relationship.
The child was conceived while the couple was on their honeymoon.
In general, the husband is presumed to be the father if the child was conceived/born during the marriage. This presumption may be rebutted by another man's acknowledgment of paternity, or by genetic testing.
Yes, unless paternity is established for the actual father. The law presumes that the husband is the father of any child conceived/born during the marriage.
Child marriage has only been a problem since the 1940s since that was when parents began to feel the need to shelter their children and provide "better lives". Children have been married off before they were even conceived for diplomatic reasons for centuries. In the case of Marie-Antoinette, her mother changed almost everything about her to marry her off and assure Austria safe from French invasion, but the marriage would only commence after Antonia (Marie) was able to bear children. I think she was around 13 or 14.
Nulligravida
No, but this question raises many others, beginning with whether and how paternity was established. For example, the husband is presumed to be the father of any children conceived/born during the marriage, unless/until proven otherwise.