congress does have complet control over the territories as it states in the constitution.READ THE CONSTITUTION!!
Article 4, Section 3, Clause 2 but it is not the complete power it is the power to make needful regulations and rules
Congress
Congress was given control over trade between the states.
Which government are you talking about? Adolf Hitler had complete control over Germany and Benito Mussolini had complete control over Italy.
Congress.
It made it that the US government had direct control over territories.
Neither branch answers to the President. The purpose of the separation of powers was to insure that no one of the three branches had complete control over the other two. Each of the branches has some control over the others, but it is not total.
By not declaring war, but simply passing a resolution of 'support,' and by limiting the funding for Defense appropriations.
Federal territories like Puerto Rico, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands are subject to U.S. federal law, but they do not have the same voting representation in Congress as states. Residents of these territories are U.S. citizens (with the exception of American Samoa, where they are U.S. nationals), and while Congress has authority over them, the territories have some degree of self-governance. However, Congress can legislate on matters affecting these territories without their direct input, which can lead to the perception that they do not fully "obey" Congress in the same way states do.
The extension of slavery into new territories
The extension of slavery into new territories
No, however Congress decides whether or not to get involved in conflict.