If they owned property.
yes because america was there place and they rule it
The declaration had nothing to do with voting and it was published declaring the colonies free of the king. It is the constitution that sets out voting laws. In 1789 only white men who were landowners and over 21 could vote. Until 1971 you had to be 21 to vote, but since the it has been 18.
Yes, and no one could vote for president. This was done in Congress.
The free men above 18
no
yes
yes
If they owned property.
In New Jersey, and only New Jersey, all inhabitants had the right to vote in 1780. As long as they could provide some evidence of wealth (Not a lot). As wealth was generally tied to the male in a household during this time it may be difficult to say that women could actually vote at this time, but it wouldn'tsurpriseme if some did!Not to say they didn'tparticipatein the politicalupheavalgoing on at the time.
yes because america was there place and they rule it
Did people who have been in prison voted in the 1789
The declaration had nothing to do with voting and it was published declaring the colonies free of the king. It is the constitution that sets out voting laws. In 1789 only white men who were landowners and over 21 could vote. Until 1971 you had to be 21 to vote, but since the it has been 18.
no he wasn't given every vote
Free black women couldn't vote until the 19th Amendment was passed 1920; however, laws stayed in effect in the south until the South the prevented black men and women from voting until the Voting Rights Act of 1965 did away with white primaries and poll taxes.
Yes, and no one could vote for president. This was done in Congress.
Spartans, who were full citizens who could vote. Perioeci, who are free but not full citizens and could not vote. Helots, the slave class, were owned by Spartans and could not vote (naturally).