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Yes. This is actually quite demonstrable.

Zionism as a philosophy did not even begin until the 1880s and Altneuland (Herzl's foundational book) was not published until 1902. However, we have Anti-Semitism in Ottoman Palestine prior to this. In 1517, when the Ottomans first invaded the region of Palestine, there were pogroms against the Jewish community there. In 1833, there was a war between the Ottomans and the Egyptian Khedivites over control of Ottoman Palestine. In the following year, Arabs in the cities of Safed and Hebron blamed the Jewish communities there for the outcome of that war (which was completely unjustified since Jews were banned from owning weapons or joining the military) and proceeded to massacre them. These massacres are known as the 1834 Safed Pogrom and the 1834 Hebron Massacre. In 1840, the murder of a Damascus Christian priest was falsely blamed on the Jews in the biggest blood libel since Jesus Christ. This resulted in violence against the Jewish community for nearly a year in uncoordinated outbursts. This is all aside from the fact that Jews were second-class citizens under the Muslims and had the requirement to identify themselves with yellow turbans, live only in certain areas, being barred from certain professions, etc.

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Q: Did Anti-Semitism in the Middle East exist before Zionism?
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