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No. He wrote: In a polity, each citizen is to possess his own arms, which are not supplied or owned by the state

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13y ago
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1w ago

Aristotle did not address the right to bear arms specifically in his works. However, he did believe in the importance of citizens being able to defend themselves and participate in the defense of the state. His emphasis was on virtue and self-defense rather than individual rights to bear arms as we understand them today.

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Q: Did Aristotle think the right to bear arms should have been removed?
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