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I suspect that this question concerns the biblical sojourn of the Israelites in Egypt. The Bible provides few clues, but does suggest that at least some of the Israelites were household slaves to the Egyptians. The fact that the Bible says the Israelites maintained their ethnic identity over a period of four hundred years implies that there was no intermarriage and no sexual slavery, normally considered highly improbable.

If the question concerns history, there is a different answer. Over ninety per cent of scholars are reported to believe that there was no biblical Exodus from Egypt, and therefore no sojourn in Egypt. Such recent writers as Lemche, Thompson, Coote, Whitelam and Williamson agree that 'lsrael' emerged peacefully within Palestine as an inevitable consequence of the economic and social decline of late bronze age Canaan coinciding with the development of new agricultural techniques which enabled increasing numbers to withdraw from the city states, located principally in the valleys, and to start settling in the hitherto sparsely populated hill country of Judah and Israel. This is now the consensus position among scholars of the real origin of the Hebrew people.

The emergence of the Hebrew people occurred around 1250 BCE, when Egypt was becoming less dominant in Palestine. There continued to be occasional invasions and trade with the Canaanites, Philistines and Israelites, so some mingling would have occurred.

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Q: Did Hebrews and Egyptians mingle
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The Egyptians.


Why did pharaoh force the Hebrews into to slavery?

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The Egyptians caught up with them, but God drowned the Egyptians in the Sea of Suf (Exodus ch.14).


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