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yes because it was his job. :D
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∙ 11y ago
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Did Shakespeare make any money with writing plays?
He must have sold his earliest plays directly to various playing companies. Playwrights in Shakespeare's day were not particularly well-paid as a rule, and many writers who relied on writing to live lived and died in poverty (Thomas Dekker for one).But Shakespeare was also an actor and later had an interest in the profits of the theatre company. What that meant was that he did not get paid money for the plays he wrote--he was the house playwright, and his plays automatically became the property of the company. But because they were good plays, and popular plays, people wanted to come to see them, and that meant more money at the box office and that meant more profits for the sharers in the company. So Shakespeare did make money out of his plays, and so did Burbage and Heminges and all the other sharers. And they all made money out of Burbage's acting as well.
What facts about Shakespeare are unusuel?
He had 7 brothers and sisters! Shakespeare never published any of his plays! Shakespeare's family were all illiterate! During his life, Shakespeare wrote 37 plays and 154 sonnets! The words "assassination"and "bump" and "bubble" were invented by Shakespeare.
Would Shakespeare still be writing plays if he was alive?
It is likely that Shakespeare would not only be writing plays, but screenplays, teleplays, and any other form of drama.
What honor was bestowed on Shakespeare by the king?
None. Shakespeare's company was honoured to have the King as a Patron, and when they performed at court they performed Shakespeare's plays, but the king did not single out Shakespeare for any special honour.
Proof is Shakespeare wrote all his stories?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays, although he sometimes had help. The evidence for this is overwhelming, and there is no evidence to the contrary. However, Shakespeare wrote hardly any of the stories those plays are based on. He used stories he had read in books and changed them slightly to make them better plays. And of course he put wonderful words into the mouths of the characters. But he did not make up stories, with only a few exceptions--the plots of A Midsummer Night's Dream and The Tempest appear to be original.
Did Shakespeare make any money with writing plays?
He must have sold his earliest plays directly to various playing companies. Playwrights in Shakespeare's day were not particularly well-paid as a rule, and many writers who relied on writing to live lived and died in poverty (Thomas Dekker for one).But Shakespeare was also an actor and later had an interest in the profits of the theatre company. What that meant was that he did not get paid money for the plays he wrote--he was the house playwright, and his plays automatically became the property of the company. But because they were good plays, and popular plays, people wanted to come to see them, and that meant more money at the box office and that meant more profits for the sharers in the company. So Shakespeare did make money out of his plays, and so did Burbage and Heminges and all the other sharers. And they all made money out of Burbage's acting as well.
Were any of William Shakespeare's plays real?
Shakespeare's history plays were based on real events.
What plays plays Shakespeare rich?
Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
What plays made Shakespeare rich?
Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
Why does England have Shakespeare's plays today?
Shakespeare was born in England. It wouldn't be right for any other country to have his plays.
Who is Beacon in Shakespeare story?
There is no chacter named Beacon in any of Shakespeare's plays.
Did shakespeare write any plays in the 1800s?
William Shakespeare died in 1616.
Were any of Shakespeare's plays not liked?
Yes
Did shakespeare write any plays in 1613?
no
What Shakespeare play had the London plague?
Plays don't catch diseases. There is no representation of an epidemic in any of Shakespeare's plays either.
Is there a quote in one of Shakespeare's plays about being asleep in the arms of Morpheus?
It is an oft quoted phrase but it is not from any of Shakespeare's plays.
What are the two plays that Shakespeare's interest is shown in?
It depends what you imagine "Shakespeare's interest" to be. There is no external evidence that he had any interests of any kind apart from making money and social climbing. So, maybe Timon of Athens (which is about losing money, not making it) and Richard III (who is sort of a social climber).
