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Answer 1

Neither. The Jews purchased the land prior to 1948 (they didn't take it). In 1948, independence was declared, but the land was already previously purchased.

Answer 2

It is a little more complicated than that. Prior to 1948, the Jewish National Fund, a Zionist land-trust, bought up to 15% of the lands of Mandatory Palestine by 1948. If you exclude the Negev desert given to the Jewish State by UNGA Resolution 181, this would account for roughly half of the land allocated to the Jewish State. There was discussion in Israel about whether or not the Arabs should be monetarily compensated for the remaining land under Jewish sovereignty until the Arab militias began to attack Jewish Settlements across Palestine. In the resulting Jewish-Arab Engagement of 1947-1949, the Jewish/Israeli forces were able to take a larger percentage of Mandatory Palestine due to the ineptness of the various Arab armies. Israel acquired these lands as a result of the conflict.

The problem with the word "take" is that it implies an initial Israeli act of aggression as opposed to a successful defense that is then turned around. It is similar, in many respects, to the US control of a number of Pacific islands such as the Marianas and Guam that were Japanese prior to World War II. The US gained these territories as a result of World War II, which it entered due to Japanese attacks on a US Military base. The US was resolved not just to fight a defensive war against Japan, but an offensive war. Israel is no different.

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Q: Did the Jews purchase the land in 1948 or take it?
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